Posts Tagged ‘Watchtower’


Jehovah’s Witnesses – True Witnesses of God

(A Closer Look in Proving Their Identity as True Christians and God’s People)

The dictionary defines the word witness (v) as to see or hear an occurrence of something. Another meaning is to view or perceive. The first meaning refers to the first witnesses who have an actual experience of seeing or hearing an event. In the Bible, these witnesses are the chosen people of God none other than the Israel. While the second meaning of witness refers to the first Christians who have an actual witness of the truthfulness of the words of Jehovah and his power through Jesus and the early apostles and those Christian witnesses of today who are testifying about the words of Jehovah and for Jesus Christ. The word “perceive” means understanding of something in a particular way thus it means knowing factual things through senses.

In the Bible, the word witnesses whom Jehovah claimed as his witnesses can be read in Isaiah 43:10.

Isaiah 43:10 “Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.” – KJV

Notice the word used to refer to those witnesses. Jehovah said they are “his servant” (singular) and not “servants”. Thus a single word for a person can be characterized as a group of people. These witnesses (the early Israel) have seen and heard the fulfillment of the prophecies and power of Jehovah. We know from the beginning, Israel had been a witness to the power of God most especially on the time when they were freed from Egyptians. From that time and unto their next generations, Israelites have seen that no one from the words of Jehovah have failed to come. So Jehovah called his nation (Israel) as his witness – meaning someone who can testify the truthfulness of the words of Jehovah. The word “servant” refers to the spiritual teachers of Israel before and now refers to the faithful and discreet slave of Jesus or the Governing Body who is in charge for the spiritual food at the proper time. This was explained in the Watchtower magazine. Take note when Jehovah said verse Isaiah 43:10 he is not only referring to the current Israel of that time but on the first Israelites whom he freed from Egyptians through his power. They are the original witnesses of Jehovah while the witnesses of that time when he said his words are his present witnesses on that time. These witnesses have witnessed the words of Jehovah about the fulfillment of the prophecies and judgment of Jehovah.

However, witnesses of Jehovah not only include the first Israel (or the literal Jews) for in Isaiah 43:5-7 it says

5Fear not: for I am with thee: I will bring thy seed from the east, and gather thee from the west;
6I will say to the north, Give up; and to the south, Keep not back: bring my sons from far, and my daughters from the ends of the earth;
7Even every one that is called by my name: for I have created him for my glory, I have formed him; yea, I have made him.

Jehovah assured his words that the first Israel would have offspring from the east and unto west part of the world. This verse definitely would mean that there are new witnesses of God to come, for the nation of Jehovah before was the Israel only. So when does these witnesses of Jehovah have come to exist? This was first fulfilled on the time of Jesus. His apostles and early Christians before became witnesses of Jehovah and himself for they have seen the truth through Jesus. But in Acts 1:8 it says

8”But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth.” – KJV

8 but you will receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you; and you shall be My witnesses both in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and even to the remotest part of the earth.” – NASB

Jesus did not say that they “are his witnesses” but rather they “will become my witnesses to (just like in other versions) [emphazise pls] Jerusalem, Judea, Samaria and to the most distant parts of the world. However, when Jesus told this to his apostles he did not mean it in present tense but on future tense. The best proof of his words can be seen in the book of Luke in 24:44-48 which says

44And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.
45Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures,
46And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behooved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day:
47And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.
48And ye (are?) witnesses of these things. – KJV

44Now He said to them, “These are My words which I spoke to you while I was still with you, that all things which are written about Me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled.”

45Then He opened their minds to understand the Scriptures,

46and He said to them, “Thus it is written, that the Christ would suffer and rise again from the dead the third day,

47and that repentance for forgiveness of sins would be proclaimed in His name to all the nations, beginning from Jerusalem.

48You (are?) witnesses of these things. – NASB

At the time Jesus said “you (?) my witnesses of these things” – these things here are his resurrection after 3 days, the preaching of the apostles and Christians to all nations and the salvation through his name. At that time apostles were only preaching to Jerusalem and Paul and the other apostles and his colleagues were the one who preached the gospel to gentile nations. So definitely the word could be sense in the future tense for they haven’t witness yet the gospel of Jesus to the Gentiles at that time. Jesus was telling them what had happened – his resurrection after 3 days then the preaching of the gospel in all nations and forgiving of sins through his name. The latter is not happening yet but on the coming days. So it must appropriately render it as “you are to be witnesses of these things” just what the NWT renders it. The word “to be witnesses” means they will become witnesses who “will testify” rather than just being a witness of the events. They will testify to these events to the Gentile nations. And when Jesus talked to his apostles and said this, he was not limiting his words to the apostles as his witnesses but on the future days to come.

Luke24:44 – 48

44 He now said to them: “These are my words which I spoke to YOU while I was yet with YOU, that all the things written in the law of Moses and in the Prophets and Psalms about me must be fulfilled.” 45 Then he opened up their minds fully to grasp the meaning of the Scriptures, 46 and he said to them: “In this way it is written that the Christ would suffer and rise from among the dead on the third day, 47 and on the basis of his name repentance for forgiveness of sins would be preached in all the nations—starting out from Jerusalem, 48 YOU are to be witnesses of these things. – NWT

And Acts 1:8 talked about the Holy Spirit (Helper as Spirit, see John 15:26 that will testify to the truth) that will come to his 12 apostles as well as the other disciples and it proves in Acts 2:1 – 11 when the Holy Spirit also came to a group of Christians before and they have miraculously speaks of different languages and they became “witnesses” (for they testified about the word of God) to other people in their new own language. – Thus the word of God started to grow in many nations because of different languages spoken of the early apostles and Christians and so the word of God started to grow.

John 15:26″When the Helper comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, that is the Spirit of truth who proceeds from the Father, He will testify about Me, – NASB

26But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me: – KJV

The Spirit of truth is now being seen only with the true religion by sharing the biblical truth with the people of the world. Thus, the spirit of truth which is the holy spirit that comes from God is being poured with the true Christians of the world. So to take the summary of it, how must we be viewed the word “witnesses” in the Bible.  When Jesus resurrected and appeared and talked with his apostles and disciples within in 40 days, he told to them “you shall become my witnesses to many nations and therefore it should be written the other text as “you are to be witnesses of these things”. It is true that some of the witnesses to many nations did not got actual chance to see Jesus and his death but they are considered witnesses of Jesus and Jehovah for they are testifying about the truth. So how I am sure that this refers to witnesses of the next generations? If the phrase of Jesus was like this “You are witnesses of these things” then definitely that is in present tense. Meaning they are already witnesses of Jesus about his resurrection and the preaching of the gospel to the nations. But that grammar would not be appropriate to use “are” because as we know Jesus was saying that the gospel will be preach starting from Jerusalem, Judea and Samaria. His words indicate of an event to come. That is why it should not be written as “are witnesses” which gives meaning of being an actual witnesses but rather the words should be “are to be witnesses” which gives accurate meaning of becoming witnesses in the future who will “testify about the truth” to the people of nations which is in line with the time that the context is showing. This is also in relation to the promise and aim of Jehovah to get a new nation for his own that will come from other nations. – Hoseas 2:23; Acts 15:17-19

Hosea 2:23And I will sow her unto me in the earth; and I will have mercy upon her that had not obtained mercy; and I will say to them which were not my people, Thou art my people; and they shall say, Thou art my God. – KJV


19“Therefore it is my judgment that we do not trouble those who are turning to God from   among the Gentiles, – NASB

Thus, these witnesses were not only witnesses of the power of Jehovah shown through Jesus Christ and in Jesus’ name but rather a more relative and deep meaning of witnessing that is bearing witness or testifying truth to all nations about Jehovah and Jesus Christ.

With this article, I am sure that Jehovah’s Witnesses are the true witnesses of Jehovah in union with Jesus Christ.

So why Jehovah’s Witnesses is correct? In Isaiah 43:10 Israel are witnesses of Jehovah on the past and on that current time yet verse 5 – 7 of Isaiah 43 just as to repeat again that these witnesses will have offspring from the east and west part of the world which is the Gentiles of the early Christians. We can see that there are modern Jews around the world but they do not believe with Jesus as the Son of God and as the Messiah and so they are not Christians. Therefore, the Israel’s offspring does not literally mean the literal Jews around the world but rather the modern Christians of today who are all over the world. Of course there are some literal Jews who are Christians because they are Jehovah’s Witnesses but they are only few. The offspring of the first witnesses or the Israel definitely includes the Christians of the Gentile nations. So I believe Christians before and of today are both witnesses of Jehovah just like his witness before – the Israel. The present day fulfillment of Jehovah’s Witnesses all over the world can be found in Acts 15: 16 – 19 and Amos 9:12.

Jehovah’s Witnesses are clearly identified in Revelation 12:17 where the dragon (Satan) is making war with them.

For additional information please see the following links:



The purpose of this writing is to show the common misconception of many people about the truth. I did not indicate the name of religions because it speaks of the general but perhaps as you may read you may be able to find to whom people it speaks the misconception of the teachings of those religions.


There is no writing in the Bible that speaks Jesus as God coequal with the Father. John 1:1 speaks of the Word who is a “god” and not as the God.

Proverbs 8:12 – 32 speaks of the Wisdom which is the personification of Jesus. In verse 22 Wisdom was said to be created or founded. He is the first of God’s works. Jesus was made in the very beginning, at the first before the world began. Verse 30 and 31 mentioned that he was like an architect or master worker or a craftsman and he was beside Jehovah God. Wisdom of God is not created. It was in him from the eternity as he exist eternity. See for his eternal qualities at Psalms 90:2 wherein one of his qualities that he possesses from eternal is his wisdom. See Revelation 3:15 in which Jesus was called the very beginning of the creation of God or the origin of all God’s creation (TEV). Here we can clearly see and understand plainly that Jesus was the firstborn of all creation (first created who belongs to the class of creation and preeminent to all creation of God) – Colossians 1:15.

For further proof of Jesus is not God but “a god”, please see the links below.


Many people of the so-called Christianity speaks that Jehovah is not the name of God. However, many Bible versions not only NWT writes the name of God as Jehovah. Please see the link here ( In King James Version (original) you can see that Jehovah is the name of God in Psalms 83:18 and in Psalms 68:4 it has a short form of his name as Jah (Yh in Hebrew) which is coined word of the praising word “hallelujah” in the book of Revelation. If Jehovah is not the name of God, then what name it should be given to him when Romans 10:13 requires by God to call him upon his name? Some people say that it is the Lord Jesus Christ. Again, the Trinity have proven faulty based on above and the links above so is it really Jesus Christ who is separated from Jehovah? No. This quote of Paul was taken from Joel 2:32. Why is TEV like that? It is so far with the exact translation? Sounds being biased again with their doctrine, aren’t they? Here is interlinear bible of the said verse: ( Notice verse 31 it says that before the Great Day of God has come or the Armageddon, there are still signs to be seen and that in verse 32 that whoever CALL UPON THE NAME OF THE LORD WILL BE SAVED. Who is the one spoken about that? It is none other than Jehovah, the God Almighty. Thus, it is require for the people to call the name of God in order to have salvation in the coming Great Day of Jehovah. So, does the name of God require us to have salvation? If Jehovah (YHWH or JHVH) is not correct then what name should we call upon to have salvation which is a requirement of God? Read Isaiah 40:26; Psalms 147:4 wherein the names are important to Jehovah that even stars he had given names and he call all of them according to their names. Acts 15:14 speaks of the people called for the name of Jehovah. Is it for only first Christians before? No. These also refer to the modern Christians today. You can read Isaiah 43:5 – 10. Verse 5 speaks that the witnesses of God will be from the east unto the west thus it includes the entire earth. Read Mark 13:10 in which it speaks that it is needed first to preach the good news to all nations. Verse 7 speaks again of those who call upon the name of God. Who are those people who call the name of God that teaches true word of God?

Psalms 33:12 NWT


Some people believe that Jesus is only a man or a prophet of God who has no pre-existence. Is he really a man? Or was he came from heaven and identified as the Son of God? The following are proofs that show that he has pre-existence in heaven.

Micah/Mikas 5:2

The one spoken about here is Jesus who was born in Ephrath or Bethlehem. Jesus was said to come from the beginning or indefinite time.

John 1:14

The Word was said to became a flesh (a man) that is Jesus became human when he came on earth in which in John 1:1,2 he was identified as the one who is with God.

John 3:16 “For God loved the world so much that he gave his only-begotten Son, in order that everyone exercising faith in him might not be destroyed but have everlasting life.

John 10:36 do YOU say to me whom the Father sanctified and dispatched into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, I am God’s Son? 37 If I am not doing the works of my Father, do not believe me.

1 Corinthians 15:45 – 47

45 It is even so written: “The first man Adam became a living soul.” The last Adam became a life-giving spirit. 46Nevertheless, the first is, not that which is spiritual, but that which is physical, afterward that which is spiritual. 47 The first man is out of the earth and made of dust; the second man is out of heaven. 

John 3:13 Moreover, no man has ascended into heaven but he that descended from heaven, the Son of man.

John 6:38 because I have come down from heaven to do, not my will, but the will of him that sent me. 

John 6:62 62 What, therefore, if YOU should behold the Son of man ascending to where he was before?


Many religions in Christendom believe that the righteous people will live in heaven and does not believe on a paradise earth. Some people believe that the paradise is in heaven and others believe that there is a literal new earth. Are these teaching really uphold the truth?

In Corinthians 15:35 – 50 speaks of resurrection. Verse 35 questions of what kind of body will the resurrected will have. Paul gave a firm answer in verse 38 and 40 to which he mentioned that there is a kind of heavenly bodies and there is a kind of earthly bodies. Verse 50 speaks of resurrection who will be on heaven and those are the ones who must die first (verse 43 – 44) since resurrected for heaven will become spiritual being in relation to Colossians 1:18, 1 Corinthians 15:49; Romans 8:29, here resurrected people will have the image of Christ just as he died they will also die and resurrected in order Jesus to be called the firstborn of all the brothers (in heaven). Jesus is also the firstborn from among the dead who became spiritual being. The same would happen with those who have heavenly hope. They will die and be resurrected as spiritual beings. Now what shows that they are special ones? The next paragraph talks about those who have earthly hope. There is no resurrection for heaven that discusses resurrection for heaven but there is one in Psalms 68:18 which states, 18 “You have ascended on high;
You have carried away captives;
You have taken gifts in the form of men,
Yes, even the stubborn ones, to reside [among them], O Jah God.

The one ascended on high and have taken men to live on heaven is none other than Jesus for he is the one who revealed the purpose of God in those who will live on heaven. It is identified as Jesus in Ephesians 4:8 – 10 which states, 8 Wherefore he says: “When he ascended on high he carried away captives; he gave gifts [in] men.” 9 Now the expression “he ascended,” what does it mean but that he also descended into the lower regions, that is, the earth? 10 The very one that descended is also the one that ascended far above all the heavens, that he might give fullness to all things.


Proverbs/Kawikaan 2:21, 22

21 For the upright are the ones that will reside in the earth, and the blameless are the ones that will be left over in it22 As regards the wicked, they will be cut off from the very earth; and as for the treacherous, they will be torn away from it.

It says the upright and blameless ones are the ones who will remain on earth. They are the ones who will remain in the land (still on earth).

Psalms/Awit 37:9, 11

9 For evildoers themselves will be cut off,
But those hoping in Jehovah are the ones that will possess the earth.

11 But the meek ones themselves will possess the earth,
And they will indeed find their exquisite delight in the abundance of peace.

It says the meek ones will inherit the earth.

Psalms/Awit 104:5  He has founded the earth upon its established places;
It will not be made to totter to time indefinite, or forever.

It says that earth will remain forever.

Genesis 13:15 because all the land at which you are looking, to you and to your seed I am going to give it until time indefinite.

Genesis 48:4 And he went on to say to me, ‘Here I am making you fruitful, and I will make you many and I will transform you into a congregation of peoples and I will give this land to your seed after you for a possession to time indefinite.’

Ezekiel 37:25 And they will actually dwell upon the land that I gave to my servant, to Jacob, in which YOUR forefathers dwelt, and they will actually dwell upon it, they and their sons and their sons’ sons to time indefinite, and David my servant will be their chieftain to time indefinite.

Joel 3;19, 20

But as for Judah, to time indefinite it will be inhabited, and Jerusalem to generation after generation. 21 And I will consider innocent their blood that I had not considered innocent; and Jehovah will be residing in Zion.”

Matthew 5:5  “Happy are the mild-tempered ones, since they will inherit the earth.

Isaiah 24:6 That is why the curse itself has eaten up the land, and those inhabiting it are held guilty. That is why the inhabitants of the land have decreased in number, and very few mortal men have remained over.

Isaiah 24:13 – 16

13 For thus it will become in the midst of the land, in among the peoples, like the beating off of the olive tree, like the gleaning when the grape gathering has come to an end. 14 They themselves will raise their voice, they will cry out joyfully. In the superiority of Jehovah they will certainly cry out shrilly from the sea. 15 That is why in the region of light they must glorify Jehovah, in the islands of the sea the name of Jehovah, the God of Israel. 16 From the extremity of the land there are melodies that we have heard: “Decoration to the Righteous One!”


Please see the link below.

Genesis 2:7 7 And Jehovah God proceeded to form the man out of dust from the ground and to blow into his nostrils the breath of life, and the man came to be a living soul.

Ezekiel 18:4, 20

4 Look! All the souls—to me they belong. As the soul of the father so likewise the soul of the son—to me they belong. The soul that is sinning—it itself will die.

20 The soul that is sinning—it itself will die. A son himself will bear nothing because of the error of the father, and a father himself will bear nothing because of the error of the son. Upon his own self the very righteousness of the righteous one will come to be, and upon his own self the very wickedness of a wicked one will come to be.

The interlinear for these verses are below. Please look the Strong’s number for the Hebrew word in verse 20 of the word person which is also soul.

James 5:20 know that he who turns a sinner back from the error of his way will save his soul from death and will cover a multitude of sins. Thus, the soul is subject to death when someone is wicked.

Please see this link for complete biblical proofs:


Exodus 20:4,5

4 “You must not make for yourself a carved image or a form like anything that is in the heavens above or that is on the earth underneath or that is in the waters under the earth. 5 You must not bow down to them nor be induced to serve them, because I Jehovah your God am a God exacting exclusive devotion, bringing punishment for the error of fathers upon sons, upon the third generation and upon the fourth generation, in the case of those who hate me;

Deuteronomy 5:8, 9

8 “‘You must not make for yourself a carved image, any form like anything that is in the heavens above or that is on the earth underneath or that is in the waters under the earth. 9 You must not bow down to them or be led to serve them, because I Jehovah your God am a God exacting exclusive devotion, bringing punishment for the error of fathers upon sons and upon the third generation and upon the fourth generation, in the case of those who hate me;

Isaiah 42:8 “I am Jehovah. That is my name; and to no one else shall I give my own glory, neither my praise to graven images.

Psalms 115:4 – 8

4 Their idols are silver and gold,
The work of the hands of earthling man.

5 A mouth they have, but they cannot speak;
Eyes they have, but they cannot see;

6 Ears they have, but they cannot hear.
A nose they have, but they cannot smell.

7 Hands are theirs, but they cannot feel.
Feet are theirs, but they cannot walk;
They utter no sound with their throat.

8 Those making them will become just like them,
All those who are trusting in them

We can see that those who are making those images will be just like them what more with those who use them for worshiping.


Is Jehovah The Same Person as Jesus?

(A discussion about terms applied both to Jehovah and Jesus)

Some terms in the Bible are used to address both to Jehovah and Jesus. These terms are the “savior”, “father”, “first and last” and “lord of lords” and “king of kings”. Let us first study the term “savior” used to address Jehovah in Isaiah 43:11 which states, “I—I am Jehovah, and besides me there is no savior.

In this verse Jehovah is saying that there is no savior other than him, thus Trinitarians say that since Jesus is also called as “a savior” in Luke 2:11 he is also Jehovah. However, let us compare Isaiah 49:26 in which Jehovah is called as the “Savior” of the Israel wherein in Septuagint interlinear there is an article in the preceding of the word “Savior” and in Luke 2:11 in which Jesus is also called as “a savior” there is no article before the word “savior”. Thus, it is proper to translate it as “a savior” to emphasize that he is not the one and only Savior which is Jehovah but the savior who is appointed by Jehovah. This is in conformity with the text in Jude 1:25 in which Jehovah is said as the Savior but it is only through Jesus Christ. However in KJV it does not have Jesus Christ as acting as the savior on behalf of Jehovah. Thus if we will follow the original Greek translation of this verse (in which Jesus Christ is not written), still the one and only identified as the “savior” is only Jehovah. However, since Jesus is the one sent by Jehovah to be the savior of the world, he is therefore acting as the savior on behalf of Jehovah. A very good proof of this matter which explicitly shows that they are distinct and that Jesus is acting as the savior on behalf of Jehovah is in Acts 5:31 which states, “31 God exalted this one as Chief Agent and Savior to his right hand, to give repentance to Israel and forgiveness of sins. 32 And we are witnesses of these matters, and so is the holy spirit, which God has given to those obeying him as ruler.” – NWT

It is clearly said in this verse that Jesus was exalted by his Father and that he was on the right side of God. There would be no valid interpretation of it than to say that Jehovah is separate from Jesus and are both present at particular time.  The Greek text of this verse has no article before the word “Savior” making it as indefinite thus it shows it is not Jehovah and also it is clear in the text that Jehovah exalted him to be the Chief Agent and [the] Savior on his right hand. Consider also Acts 13:23 in which in Greek interlinear it has no article thus NWT renders it as “a savior” and not the savior unlike in other bible versions which renders it as “the savior”. However in John 4:42 and 1 John 4:14 Jesus was identified as to be “the savior” of the world. Should we say that he is the Savior in the Old Testament or he is Jehovah? No. In these verses it only shows that Jehovah sent his son to be “the savior of the world”. Using an article on the Greek text by the writer was valid because Jesus was the one acted as the savior of the world in “physical” sense when he offered his life for the mankind. There is no other savior in the world who came in the world and who acted as the savior of mankind literally. We can see the difference of using the word “savior” to Jesus when he was described in heaven in Philippians 3:20 which states,“But our citizenship is in heaven. And we eagerly await a Savior from there, the Lord Jesus Christ,”. In this text we can clearly see the carefulness of the writer in addressing Jesus as a “savior” who is being compared with Jehovah as “the savior” of all since both of them are in heaven. We can see an example of this using an article in Titus 1:3 and 1 Timothy 2:3 which identifies Jehovah as “the savior”. A good verse example in the Bible that identifies Jesus as “a savior” is in Isaiah 19:20.

20 And it must prove to be for a sign and for a witness to Jehovah of armies in the land of Egypt; for they will cry out to Jehovah because of the oppressors, and he will send them a savior, even a grand one, who will actually deliver them. – NWT

The original Greek interlinear has no article before the word “man” in which in Bible translations renders it as “a savior”. This clearly identifies that Jesus is a savior on behalf of Jehovah and Jehovah is the only savior.

Another term use both to Jehovah and Jesus is the “Father”. Jehovah is address as the “Father” many times in the Bible both in Hebrew and Greek Scriptures. On the other hand Jesus was once addressed as a “Father” in Isaiah 9:6.

“6 For there has been a child born to us, there has been a son given to us; and the princely rule will come to be upon his shoulder. And his name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace.” – NWT

Is it right to say that because of this title used to address to both of them we can say that Jehovah is also Jesus? No. Take note that Abraham was also called the “Father” of all nations and this means he is a father to God’s people. Since Jehovah is the father of all Christians (that is on the time of adoption of men) and those who will be resurrected and be saved should we say that Abraham as he is the father of all nations (God’s people) is also Jehovah? Of course not. Saying Jesus is the Father of Christians is saying also that Abraham is the Father. Abraham was called “the father of all nations” in Genesis 17:4, 5 since through him all the people on earth will be blessed – Genesis 8:18; Genesis 12:3 and Galatians 3:8. Jehovah made a covenant with him that the promise “seed” will come through his descendants and this was Jesus and there are 144, 000 who belong to this seed. They are also called the seeds of Abraham who will have the promise of God of heavenly life – Galatians 3:29.  Therefore, Jesus as a “Father” doesn’t mean that He is the Heavenly Father but rather a father to the congregation of God for he is the head of the church whom appointed by Jehovah. Jesus is called to be as n “Everlasting Father” since it is through him the people on earth will be blessed – Acts 3:25; Genesis 22:18; Galatians 3:14. Do you think Abraham could be the father of all nations if the will of God did not happen through Jesus Christ? Abraham became the father of all nations only because of Jesus’ performance who acted in the foundation of the Christian congregation of God. It was through Jesus Christ the foundation of the congregation of God was established. Just as the head of the house – the father is also concern with his children and thus he feeds them and provides them everything they need. Jesus as the head of the congregation of God provides spiritual foods through his faithful and discreet slaves and provides them physical needs through his name in relation to the requests of the Christians to his Father. Moreover, Jesus is a father to all Jehovah’s Witnesses (after the final salvation) since it is through him the salvation for them is assured and the blessings for them came after. Jesus is a father since he let feed God’s people with right instructions and words of God as well as those people who are not yet part of the congregation of God but have chance to enter into it.

Another term used to address to both of them is “first” and “last”. Jehovah used this term to identify himself in Isaiah 44:6 which states, “This is what Jehovah has said, the King of Israel and the Repurchaser of him, Jehovah of armies, ‘I am the first and I am the last, and besides me there is no God.”

While the text that identifies Jesus as the “first” and “last” is in Revelation 1:17 – 18 and Revelation 2:8. Since Jesus died as a man before therefore all Christianity agreed that this is Jesus however, since he is also called as “the first and last” the same descriptions to Jehovah in Isaiah 44:6, then Trinitarians concluded that they are one or coequal. However, this cannot be true since in Revelation 3:21 Jehovah and Jesus were identified as separate individuals who are both present at the same time. This is a proof from among many verses in the bible that identifies Jesus who is in the right side of Jehovah. So definitely Jesus is not Jehovah. He is called “first” since he is the first creation of Jehovah – 1 Colossians 1:15, 17 – 18. He is “first” – the beginning of all creation of Jehovah as he was described in Proverbs 8:22 – 23. Some bible versions translated verse 22 as the wisdom [the personification of Jesus] which was not created but possessed by God showing it is an eternal nature of God which is present in him. This is not true since verse 23 in their versions and in NWT suggests that this “wisdom” was established by Jehovah and all the terms used by other bible versions shows the same meaning of producing and forming it which is really synonymous to the word “created”. That is why this wisdom was called the master worker or craftsman who is being delight with his Father and who is beside of the Father. Can wisdom as nature of God can have delight to God and act as a master worker or craftsman who is beside of God? It cannot be possible unless the wisdom is a person. Jesus is also the “first” since he was the first one resurrected from dead who have eternal life in heaven and he is the one whom Jehovah appointed to be first in all things both in heaven and on earth. But this doesn’t mean he is Jehovah who is above everything. In 1 Corinthians 15:24 – 28 Jesus was described as the king who will hand over his kingdom to his God. Verse 25 clearly stated that God made him the king to put all God’s enemies under his feet but verse 27 and 28 clearly reveals that Jesus will subject himself to his God so that the God may be above in all. Thus in this verse it shows he is the “last” – the last person who will have the highest authority with everything in heaven and on earth and that he is also the last person who will subject himself to God and who will turn over his kingdom to the only true God.

What about the word “lord of lords” and “king of kings” which were used both to Jehovah (1 Timothy 6:15 – 16) and Jesus (Revelation 19:16)? Do these verses prove that they are one and coequal? No. Even Nebuchadnezzar was also called as “king of kings” in Daniel 2:37 but this doesn’t mean he is literally the king of all the other kings on earth. This only means that he is the most powerful king on earth on that time thus in his dream which was explained by Daniel that he (symbolizes by a tree in Daniel 4:4 – 37) is the most powerful on that time yet his kingdom will be taken away from him and this happened when he got sick mentally because he became too proud of himself however, he got back his power and kingdom when he recognized Jehovah as his God and humble himself in the eyes of God. This suggests also the same in reference to Jesus. He is the “king of kings” and “lord of lords” on the time it was given to him by Jehovah but Jehovah will be the King of all and Lord of all when Jesus subject himself to the God Almighty – 1 Corinthians 15:24 – 28.


The Divine Name: Should We Refrain From Saying It?

“It is evident that the original pronunciation of God’s name is no longer known. Nor is it really important. If it were, then God himself would have made sure that it was preserved for us to use. The important thing is to use God’s name according to its conventional pronunciation in our own language.”- Watchtower

Many people of today starting from the second century don’t know the name of Almighty God. For them they call him as LORD or God. Just like that. Some write the word “LORD” or “God” if they are referring to Almighty God or the Sovereign Lord. The Jehovah’s Witnesses do use these terms but not as names of the Supreme Being but rather they call the Almighty God by his name “Jehovah.” LORD and God are not names. They are only titles. Just for example the word “president”. When we are referring to the president of a country or a company, we write the beginning letter in uppercase, i.e. President, making this as a proper noun. So we may write for example in this manner: “The President of the Philippines has arrived already.” or “The President of Development Bank of the Philippines supports the uplifting of the economy.” We do not write the first letter of the “president” in lowercase but instead in uppercase. This is the same also with the title “Chief Justice”. We often write it in that manner not “chief justice” because we refer to a respectable person, a well-known being of a particular place. Although sometimes we write it in lowercase, this only happens after we have introduced already the uppercase form of the first and sixth letter of Chief Justice or the President in the beginning of the sentences. And this is true also with the word “LORD” or “God”. We refer to the ultimate being – the most powerful in the universe. That is why it is written all in uppercase in other Bible. There are lords and gods in the Bible (written in lowercase), but these are not proper nouns. These are considered as common nouns. So by citing specific name of gods just like Baal and Zeus, this show a proper names were given to the gods. In New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures, “God” and “Lord” were written as “God” and “Lord”. The name Jehovah was used to refer to Almighty or Supreme God. The name Jehovah appeared almost 7000 times in New World Translation and in the original Hebrew Bible and it was asserted by many scholars and different religions. Anyway, the question is “Does God really has a name? If yes, why can’t others find it in their Bibles? To answer these we must consider the history behind the lost of the Divine Name in other Bible. The lost of the Divine name occur after the second century C.E. The following paragraphs have quoted from the articles of Jehovah’s Witnesses in the Watchtower’s website.


His name was Hananaiah Ben Teradion. He was a Jewish scholar of the second century C.E., and he was known for holding open meetings where he taught from Sefer Torah, a scroll containing the first five books of the Bible. Ben Teradion was also known for using the personal name of God and teaching it to others. Considering that the first five books of the Bible contain the name of God more than 1,800 times, how could he teach the Torah without teaching about God’s name?

A relief depicting the execution of Hananiah ben Teradion

Ben Teradion’s day, however, was a dangerous time for Jewish scholars. According to Jewish historians, the Roman emperor had made it illegal under penalty of death to teach or practice Judaism. Eventually, the Romans arrested Ben Teradion. At his arrest he was holding a copy of Sefer Torah. When responding to his accusers, he candidly admitted that in teaching a Bible, he was merely obeying a divine command. Still, he received the death sentence.

On the day of his execution, Ben Teradion was wrapped in the very scroll of the Bible that he was holding when arrested. Then he was burned at the stake. The Ecyclopaedia Judaica says that “in order to prolong his agony tufts of wool soaked in water were placed over his heart so that he should not die quickly.” As part of his punishment, his wife was also executed and his daughter sold to a brothel.

Although the Romans were responsible for this brutal execution of Ben Teradion, the Talmuda states that “the punishment of being burnt came upon him because he pronounced the Name in its full spelling.” Yes, to the Jews, pronouncing the name of God was indeed a serious transgressions.


Evidently, during the first and second centuries C.E., a superstition regarding the use of God’s name took hold among the Jews. The Mishnah (a collection of rabbinic commentaries that became the foundation of the Talmud) states that “one who pronounces the divine name as it is spelt” has no portion in the future earthly Paradise promised by God.

What was the origin of such a prohibition? Some claim that the Jews considered the name of God too sacred for imperfect humans to pronounce. Eventually, there was hesitancy even to write the name. According to one source, that fear arose because of a concern  that the document in which the name was written might later end up in the trash, resulting in a desecration of the divine name.

The Encyclopaedia Judaica says that “the avoidance of pronouncing the name YHWH . . . was caused by a misunderstanding of the Third Commandment. The third of the Ten Commandments given by God to the Israelites states: “You must not take up the name of Jehovah your God in a worthless way, for Jehovah will not leave the one unpunished who takes up his name in a worthless way.” (Exodus 20:7) Hence, God’s decree against the improper use of his name was twisted into a superstition.

Surely, no one today claims that God would have someone burned at the stake for pronouncing the divine name! Yet, Jewish superstitions regarding God’s personal name still survive. Many continue to refer to the Tetragrammaton as the “Ineffable Name” and the “Unutterable Name.” In some circles all references to God are intentionally mispronounced to avoid violating the tradition. For example, Jah, or Yah, an abbreviation for God’s personal name, is pronounced Kah. Hallelujah is pronounced Hallelukah. Some even avoid writing out the term “God,” substituting a dash for one or more letters. For instance, when they wish to write the English word “God,” they actually write “G-d.”

Footnote: aThe Talmud is a compilation of ancient Jewish tradition and is regarded as one of the most sacred and influential written works of the Jewish religion.” – end of quote

So that is the reason why the divine name of God had not preserved until this day. But should we not use a name for God, wherein in fact He himself showed the importance of his name? In this article we will know whether Jehovah, the name of God used by Jehovah’s Witnesses is improper to use.

Well others don’t believe on the name Jehovah as the name of God. They say this is not the correct name of God because it is only invented by man. They say this is not the exact transliteration of the tetragrammaton (YHWH). Others also insisting that there is no letter “J” in ancient Hebrew therefore, it is not right to use Jehovah. Others say it is proper to use Yahweh than Jehovah. Let us see whether name Jehovah is not right to use.

The original scriptures of the Bible in Hebrew were written without vowels or written purely in consonants. The ancient Hebrew alphabet consists of 22 letters. There was no letter J in the ancient Hebrew alphabet. The Modern Hebrew alphabet consists also of 22 letters with no letter “J” and has “V” similar to “W” of the ancient Hebrew alphabet. Thus, other transliterations of tetragrammaton is YHVH or JHVH because “w” is no longer in the Modern Hebrew. (See the Modern Hebrew Alphabet.) And why YHWH has changed to JHVH specifically the first letter Y to J?

We know that some names in the Bible started in letter “J” such as Jesus, Jacob, John, James, Joshua, Jonathan, Jonah, Jeremiah and others. These names in Biblical Hebrew before were starting in letter “Y”. For instance, the name Jesus was probably pronounced as Yeshua or Yehoshua. Nobody knows the exact pronunciation of it yet we acknowledge the name Jesus in our time. We believe in the name Jesus though it is not the exact translation of his original name. Wouldn’t be the same also with the name Jehovah? To continue, Jeremiah was written as Yeremiyahu, Isaiah as Yeshayahu, Jonah as Yonah, Jacob as Ya’akov, John as Yochanan, Joel as Yoel and Joseph as Yosef. These starts all in letter “Y” in the Biblical Hebrew yet we recognize the transformations of these names in our modern time. So there is no reason to question the letter “J” in the name Jehovah. Also, Jah is the abbreviated form of Jehovah which is the same as Yah. Jehovah is one of the closer suggested pronunciation of Tetragrammaton with dots in the Leningrad Codex of 1008 – 1010 A. D. wherein the vowel points were added by the Masoretes in the first millennium C.E. These are the six Hebrew spellings of the tetragrammaton in Leningrad Codex: Yehovah – Genesis 3:14, Yehwah – Judges 16:28, Yehowih* – Judges 16:28, Yehwih* – Genesis 15:2, Yehowih – 1 Kings 2:26 and Yehwih – Ezekiel 24:24. They note that in this transliteration it is not intended to indicate how the name is pronounced, but only how the word would be pronounced if read like any other word.

The Leningrad Codex of 1008-1010 A.D.

Vowel points were added to the Tetragrammaton by the Masoretes, in the first millennium C.E.

Six different Hebrew spellings of the Tetragrammaton are found in:
The Leningrad Codex of 1008-1010 A.D. as shown below (note that the entries in the transliteration column are not intended to indicate how the name is pronounced, but only how the word would be pronounced if read like any other word):

Chapter & Verse Hebrew Spelling Transliteration Codex L. Link Explanation
Genesis 3:14 יְהֹוָה Yehovah [1] This is the most common set of vowels, which are essentially the vowels from Adonai (with the hataf patah reverting to its natural state as a shwa).
Judges 16:28 יְהוָה Yehwah [2] This is the same as above, but with the dot over the holam/waw left out, because it is a little redundant.
Judges 16:28 יֱהֹוִה Yehowih* [3] When the Tetragrammaton is preceded by Adonai, it receives the vowels from the name Elohim instead. The hataf segol does not revert to a shwa because doing so could lead to confusion with the vowels in Adonai.
Genesis 15:2 יֱהוִה Yehwih* [4] Just as above, this uses the vowels from Elohim, but like the second version, the dot over the holam/waw is omitted as redundant.
1 Kings 2:26 יְהֹוִה Yehowih [5] Here, the dot over the holam/waw is present, but the hataf segol does get reverted to a shwa.
Ezekiel 24:24 יְהוִה Yehwih [6] Here, the dot over the holam/waw is omitted, and the hataf segol gets reverted to a shwa.

The * indicates that the transliteration “e” indicates a Hatef Segol.

The name “Jehovah” first appeared in the translations of John Wycliffe of the King James Version in 1611. It appears in Exodus 6:2-3, Psalms 83:18 and Isaiah 12:2, 26:4. Before the name “Jehovah” was formed, the tetragrammaton was transliterated as Iehouah in Latin (consider the Geneva Version of 1608) then became Iehova. I guess the Bible names written in Hebrew were not all transliterated exactly just as we mentioned above. Jesus was probably pronounced as Yeshua or Yehoshua. No one knows the exact transliteration of it for there are no vowels in Hebrew language. The name Jesus was rendered as Iesous in Greek. But we accept the English translation of the name Jesus and other translations in other languages because of our faith. Our faith shows that the person who possess that name (whether it is translated accurately or not ) did really exist. Wouldn’t be right also to accept the name Jehovah because of our faith?

Today, Jesus is rendered differently according to the language of the reader of the Bible. Spanish Bible readers encounter Jesús (pronounced Hes·soos’). Italians spell it Gesù (pronounced Djay·zoo’). And Germans spell it Jesus (pronounced Yay’soos). If you will be on these countries would you not use these names because these are not familiar with you? Would you like to teach them the name Jesus in your own language rather than by using their own language?

The Bible says that God knows each one of the many billions of stars by name. (Isaiah 40:26).Would it not be proper also for himself to have a name that can be called by his people?

Here are the verses in the Bible that you can ponder to realize why the name of God is really important:

Jesus taught his followers to pray to God: “Let your name be sanctified.” (Matthew 6:9) And in prayer on the night before his execution, he said to his Father: “I have made your namemanifest to the men you gave me out of the world . . . Holy Father, watch over them on account of your own namewhich you have given me.”—John 17:6, 11, 26

“Everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will get away safe.”—Joel 2:32; Acts 2:21.

Only conscientious reading and studying of the Bible can provide you with insight into the kind of God that Jehovah is. He promises to protect those who show affection for him and his name. Regarding one who does so, God says: “Because on me he has set his affection, I shall also provide him with escape. I shall protect him because he has come to know my name. He will call upon me, and I shall answer him. I shall be with him in distress. I shall rescue him and glorify him. With length of days I shall satisfy him, and I shall cause him to see salvation by me.”—Psalm 91:14-16.

Thus, the disciple James remarked during a conference of the elders at Jerusalem: “Symeon has related thoroughly how God for the first time turned his attention to the nations to take out of them a people for his name. And with this the words of the Prophets agree.” (Acts 15:14, 15)

“At that time those in fear of Jehovah spoke with one another, each one with his companion, and Jehovah kept paying attention and listening. And a book of remembrance began to be written up before him for those in fear of Jehovah and for those thinking upon his name.—Malachi 3:16.

Jesus Christ teaching his disciples to pray: “You must pray, then, this way: ‘Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified.'”—Matthew 6:9, 10

I am Jehovah. That is my name; and to no one else shall I give my own glory.”—Isaiah 42:8

The present-day Hebrew and Arabic alphabets still consist of consonant letters only, Hebrew having 22 letters and Arabic 28. Some of these letters, however, acquired the added function of representing long vowels. Another method of indicating vowels in written Hebrew or Arabic is by adding dots or dashes placed below, above, or to the side of the consonant. This system for indicating vowels developed for Arabic, Hebrew, and Aramaic during the 8th and 9th centuries ad to ensure the correct reading of sacred texts, and avoid the multiple readings possible when vowels are missing. Bls, for example, could be read as bless, bliss, bills, or bales. Like Phoenician and other Semitic languages, Arabic, Hebrew, and Aramaic are written from the right to the left. Consider this translation of Hebrew in modern writings.

Here is a translations of a Bible verse from Hebrew words to English words of Deuteronomy 6:4 :


This is how it appears in the Hebrew Scrolls:

Read from right to left (so also the following)
Top line:
YHVH  Yisrael  Shmaa <{——-Bottom line:
echad YHVH Eloheinu <{——-

The HWH (hawah) or HVH (havah) means “to be” in which Jehovah’s Witnesses renders these as “causes to become” thus in my opinion the translations of a Bible verse in the preceding words can also be written in the short form of the name of God as “Hear Israel, Jah [who] causes to become(HWH) our God, is one Jah [who] causes to become. But in NWT it is written as “Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah.” This proves that Jehovah is one God and he shows himself as one person only and not in triune God. This is only my own mapping with the short form of the name Jehovah which is Jah and the verb hwh (hawah) which has a meaning of causes to become.

Here are the versions of Bible that uses the Divine name:

Restored Name King James Version OT – Uses the actual Hebrew Tetragrammaton throughout
NT – Uses Tetragrammaton and Hebrew letters for Y’Shua
The Scriptures – The ISR OT – Uses the actual Hebrew Tetragrammaton throughout
NT – Uses Tetragrammaton and Hebrew letters for Y’Shua
Hebrew Names Version of the World English Bible NT – Uses Yeshua and Hebrew Names for NT Books
Hebraic Roots Version NT only
James Trimm
NT – Uses Yeshua, Hebrew names and YHWH
Complete Jewish Bible – D Stern NT – Uses Yeshua throughout
Hebrew Bible (OT only)
(World English Bible version)
OT – Uses Yahweh throughout
The Tanach (OT) in Hebrew Uses the actual Hebrew rendering YHVH (Tetragrammaton)
The Tanach in Hebrew Uses the actual Hebrew rendering YHVH (Tetragrammaton)
The New Testament in Hebrew Uses the Hebrew letters/version for ‘Yeshua’
Jerusalem Bible 1971 Uses Yahweh throughout OT
Rotherham 1897 Uses Yahweh throughout OT
Restoration of Original Sacred   Name Bible 1970 Uses Yahweh throughout OT & many times in NT
Traina, Holy Name Bible 1963 Uses Yahweh throughout OT & many times in  NT
Anchor Bible Uses Yahweh throughout OT
Bible in Basic English 1965 Yahweh – Ex. 6:2, 3, 6; Ps.83:18 Jah – Isa. 12:2; Isa. 26:4
Berkeley Version 1963 Yahweh – Ps.147; Ps.8; Gen.22:14; Hosea12:5
Goodspeed & Smith The Bible Yahweh – Ex 3:16;  Ex 6:3
Ogden- The Basic Bible 1950 Yahweh – Ps.83:18
An American Tr. 1948 Yah  – Isa 12:2; Isa. 26:4
New World Translation Uses Jehovah throughout OT and 277 in NT
LeFevre, G.N. N.T. 1929 Uses Jehovah many times in NT
Roth N.T. 1963 Uses Jehovah many times in NT
Ballentine American Bible 5 Vols. N.T. 1901 Jehova NT 13 times
Wakefield, G. N.T. 1795 Jehovah NT – Rev. 19:1, 3, 4 & 6
Grant’s Numerical Bible Uses Jehovah throughout OT
Darby 1890 Uses Jehovah throughout OT
Taylor – The Living Bible 1971 Uses Jehovah throughout OT
Young – Literal Translation Uses Jehovah throughout OT
ASV 1901 Uses Jehovah throughout OT
Byington 1972 Uses Jehovah throughout OT
Sharpe 1865 Uses Jehovah throughout OT
Westminster Version Uses Jehovah throughout OT
American Baptist Publication Soc. Holy Bible – An improved Edition 1913 Uses Jehovah throughout OT
Bellamy Holy Bible (Pentateuch) 1818 Uses Jehovah throughout OT
Moulton 1914 Jehovah – Ps.83:18; Ex.6:2-9; Ex.22:14;  Ps.68:4; Jer.16:20 Isa.12:2; 26:4
N.E.B. 1970 Jehovah p.XVI Gen. 4:26; Ex.3:l5-16; Ex.6:3; 33:19; 34:5-6; 35:31
K.J.V. 1611 Jehovah – 4 times: Ex.6:2-3; Ps.83:18, (68:4) Isa. 12:2; 26:4
Revised English Version 1898 Jehovah – Ex.6:2-3; Ps.83:18
Dr. Conquest 1843 Jehovah – Ps.83:18
Polyglott – English Version 1836 Jehovah – Ps.83:18
Joseph Smith – Inspired Version 1936 ed Jehovah – Ps.83:18
Green J.P. King James & others Jehovah – Ps.83:18
Scott, T. 1816 Jehovah – Ps-83:18
Green, J.P. Modern K . J . 1962 Jehovah – Ps.83:18
Book of Mormon Jehovah – on last page only
Good News Bible “Lord” Jehovah Ex 6:3 footnote
Berkeley Version Bible in Modern English 1963 Jehovah – Gen 22:14; Ex 6:3 Ps 8:1,9; Ex 3:15; Yahweh – Hosea 12:5
Great Bible (Hexaplar Psalter)  1969 Jehovah – Ps-33:12
Iehoua Ps,83:18
Geneva Version 1608 Iehouah – Gen.22:14; Ps.83:18
Forms of the divine name in different languages, indicating international acceptance of the form JehovahAwabakal – Yehóa
Bugotu – Jihova
Cantonese – Yehwowah
Danish – Jehova
Dutch – Jehovah
Efik – Jehovah
English – Jehovah
Fijian – Jiova
Finnish – Jehova
French – Jéhovah
Futuna – Ihova
German – Jehova
Hungarian – Jehova
Igbo – Jehova
Italian – Geova
Japanese – Ehoba
Maori – Ihowa
Motu – Iehova
Mwala-Malu – Jihova
Narrinyeri – Jehovah
Nembe – Jihova
Petats – Jihouva
Polish – Jehowa
Portuguese – Jeová
Romanian – Iehova
Samoan – Ieova
Sotho – Jehova
Spanish – Jehová
Swahili – Yehova
Swedish – Jehova
Tahitian – Iehova
Tagalog – Jehova
Tongan – Jihova
Venda – Yehova
Xhosa – uYehova
Yoruba – Jehofah
Zulu – uJehova

People say that it is improper to pronounce the name of God. Why the Christendom believes in the name of Jesus though it is not the actual spelling of Jesus name? It was said that Jesus may probably pronounced as Yehoshua or Yeshua but why do we accept the name Jesus? It is because we believe on the personality of that person rather than his name. We do not pronounce it as in Hebrew but on how we pronounce it in our own language. Just as what the Watchtower mentioned above Jesus is pronounce in different languages. It is not always the same but different according to different languages spoken by people. What is Peter in Tagalog? Is it not Pedro? Is it the same in other languages? What about Paul is it not Pablo in Tagalog? Is it still Pablo or Paul in other languages? It is not. What about James in Tagalog? It is Santiago isn’t it? Is it still the same in other languages? So from these we can learn that it is not the pronunciation that matters but rather on the person who holds that name, his attributes and his own personality that define his name according to different languages. That is true also when it comes to the name of God – Jehovah. It does not matter if we pronounce it different from the original pronunciation of God’s name but on how we give importance to the carrier of that name and give much value on the personality, attributes and identity of Almighty God.       The Watchtower site emphasized this: “GOD himself tells us his name. He is recorded as saying: “I am Jehovah, that is my name.”* (Isaiah 42:8, American Standard Version) The name Jehovah is the best-known English form of the Hebrew name God gave himself. It may surprise you that this unique Hebrew name appears thousands of times in ancient Bible manuscripts. In fact, it appears more often than any other name mentioned in the Bible.

Some may answer the question, “What is God’s name?” by saying, “the Lord.” Really, though, that is no more informative than it would be to answer the question, “Who won the election?” by saying, “the candidate.” Neither provides a clear answer, since “Lord” and “candidate” are not names.

Why did God reveal his name to us? He did it so that we can come to know him better. To illustrate, a person may be called Sir, Boss, Dad, or Grandpa, depending on the circumstances. These titles reveal something about him. But the name of the person reminds us of everything we know about him. Likewise, titles such as Lord, Almighty, Father, and Creator call attention to different facets of God’s activities. But only his personal name, Jehovah, reminds us of everything we know about him. How can you really know God without knowing his name?

It is important not only to know but also to use that name. Why? Because the Bible tells us: “Everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved.”—Romans 10:13; Joel 2:32.” – end of quote




The Divine Name of God: Spoken by Jesus and Early True Christians

(An Archeological, Logical and Biblical Proofs)

Many religious scholars are still looking for evidence that the Divine Name or the Tetragrammaton has been known to early true Christians. They believe that Jesus himself have revealed the name of his Father to his apostles and disciples. Even this fact can be seen clearly in the New Testament or Christian Greek Scriptures which are being presented by the Jehovah’s Witnesses and others religious scholars and leaders, yet a lot of people do not recognize the word of God. As we go through here, you will realize the facts that the Divine Name of God was used by early Christians.

The main reason why other religious leaders and their followers do not recognize the account of this is because the Septuagint (LXX) or the Greek Translation of Hebrew Scriptures have not encountered any written word or symbol for Tetragrammaton but instead a word “Kyrios” which means “Lord” were found. Some early Bible Versions including Latin Vulgate translated by Jerome from Hebrew in 4th century C.E. have not retained the Name of God. However, some Bible versions by some people like Aquila (1st century C.E.) and Symachus (2nd century C.E.) has retained the Tetragrammaton. This was shown by Origen in his hexapla – a six-column inspired reproduction of the Hebrew Scriptures in Greek language. In a study of his Hexapla on the evidence of the fragmentary copies now known, Professor W. G. Wadell said this:

“In Origen’s Hexapla . . . the Greek versions of Aquila, Symmachus, and LXX all represented JHWH by PIPI; in the second column of the Hexapla the Tetragrammaton was written in Hebrew characters.” – The Journal of Theological Studies, Oxford, Vol. XLV, 1944, pp. 158, 159. Others believe the original text of Origen’s Hexapla used Hebrew characters for the Tetragrammaton in all its columns. Origen himself stated that “in the most accurate manuscripts THE NAME occurs in Hebrew characters, yet not in today’s Hebrew [characters], but in the most ancient ones”.

Now, based on this evidence, we can say that the Septuagint has tetragrammaton. There has no indication that there is a Septuagint which has no tetragrammaton in its entire volume. The only thing that made up a wrong conclusion by the other religious scholars and religions was that they don’t found any evidence of tetragrammaton in the 5000 excavated fragments of the New Testament or Greek Christian Scriptures and the version of Latin Vulgate (complete Hebrew and Greek Scriptures translated into Latin language) by Jerome in the 4th century C.E., wherein he also not retain the tetragrammaton and said he had used the Septuagint BUT MADE A COMMENT THAT THE TETRAGRAMMATON WERE WRITTEN IN SOME GREEK VOLUMES IN THE ANCIENT HEBREW CHARACTERS [capitalization for emphasis]. On the other hand, Aquila had translated the Hebrew Scriptures or the Old Testament into Greek in his own way. Aquila was probably lived from 130 C.E. It was said that Aquila consult the Septuagint wherein the tetragramatton was there written in Greek letters and equivalent to “PIPI” in Roman characters. In fact, Origen also examined the Septuagint(LXX) and Symmachus version wherein he also found the tetragrammaton denoted in Greek characters and could be translated the same as PIPI in Roman Chracters. Still this evidence do not recognize by many and say that from the original Septuagint (without tetragrammaton), some had revised it and put back again the Divine Name of God which may have used by Aquila and Symmachus and have examined by Origen. So in this case, some would believe that the Septuagint used by Origen was not the original Septuagint but a revised version of the original Septuagint. Later, we will find out if these were true.

As of today, the archeologists or researchers have found around 5000 copies of fragments of the New Testaments in the Dead Sea Regions. And scholars have examined these fragments and have found that the tetragrammaton cannot be found anywhere else on it. Such observation have resulted in many religious scholars and leaders to conclude that the original Septuagint used by Jesus and his disciples do not contain the Divine Name and they claim these were original writings or manuscripts of the writers of Christian Greek Scriptures. However, based on the dating of the fragments it was found out that these fragments were existed from 3rd century to 4th century C.E. Yet, still many religious scholars who don’t believe in using the name of God do not recognize this fact. So, again with this, we will not yet assume that they are wrong.

However, there were evidences found out from some fragments of original Septuagint which have excavated as it was from the Old Testament written in Greek. One of these fragments was found by researchers and gave them a dating from 50 B.C. to 50 C.E. Below are pictures of those fragments which contain tetragrammaton and had taken from Wikipedia’s site.  You can see the picture from this link site:

And from another site, I have found an explanation of some fragments and it was called Fouad 266 papyri which has been studied by the Watch Tower itself. You can check the figure from this link: and

The above link is only visible if you have account in

Below is a quote words from a blog contributor:

In the picture above [# 56583], the left hand picture again is of Fouad 266, and is dated to the 1st century BCE. The Tetragrammaton can be seen (encircled with pointed arrows). The main text is in Greek, but the Divine Name has been retained in Hebrew!

Do you see that, even though the main text is in Greek, the Tetragrammaton in square Hebrew letters is used? So the copyist of this papyrus scroll also did not substitute the Greek words for “Lord” (Kyrios) or “God.” Rather, over 30 times he put—in the midst of the Greek writing—the Tetragrammaton in Hebrew letters!”

The fouad 266 can be seen in this link taken from

Other fragments can be seen in this link:

See the links below that provides pictures of fragments of tetragrammaton in BCE and CE.

Dr. Paul E. Kahle of Oxford explained that these fragments contain “perhaps the most perfect Septuagint text of Deuteronomy that has come down to us.”

In Studia Patristica, he added,

“We have here in a papyrus scroll a Greek text which represents the text of the Septuagint in a more reliable form than Codex Vaticanus and was written more than 400 years before.”

The above words were taken from a site who also quoted those words from the viewed website of the preceding figures.

The following are some of the fragments of LXX that have the tetragrammaton which are available for studies of religious scholars:
1) LXX P. Fouad Inv. 266.

2) LXX VTS 10a.

3) LXX IEJ 12.

4) LXX VTS 10b.

5) 4Q LXX Levb.

6) LXX P. Oxy. VII.1007.

7) Aq Burkitt.

8) Aq Taylor.

9) Sym. P. Vindob. G. 39777.

10) Ambrosiano O 39 sup.

The above fragments show that there was really tetragrammaton used in Septuagint.

Another fragment that had found and had commented by a scholar who believes tetragrammaton was really existed in original Septuagint is below.

On the transcription of the Divine Name [in the LXX] B.J. Roberts wrote in 1951: “The problem still remains unsolved and is under discussion.” If any change has taken place over the past decade it is in a movement still further away from the position of Baudissin. This scholar had maintained that right from its origins the LXX had rendered the Tetragrammaton by Kyrios [Kyrios], and that in no case was this latter a mere substitute for an earlier jAdwnaiv [Adonai]. Thus he denied the evidence of Origen that in the more accurate manuscripts the Divine Name was written in ancient (palaeo-Hebrew) script and the later testimony of Jerome to the same effect. As Waddell pointed out, Baudissin’s summary statement is “flatly disproved” by the Fouad Papyrus, and now a Qumran fragment of Leviticus ii-iv, written in a hand closely akin to Fouad 266, has been found to render the Tetragrammaton by IAW. Kahle is also of the opinion, and claims the concurrence of C.H. Roberts, that in the Rylands Papyrus Greek 458, at Deuteronomy xxvi.17 where the text breaks off just before the appearance of the Divine Name, the original bore not Kyrios as Roberts originally supposed, but the unabridged Tetragrammaton. It would seem therefore that the evidence most recently to hand is tending to confirm the testimony of Origen and Jerome, and that Kahle is right in holding that LXX texts, written by Jews for Jews, retained the Divine Name in Hebrew Letters (palaeo-Hebrew or Aramaic) or in the Greek imitative form PIPI, and that its replacement by Kyrios was a Christian innovation.[22]

[22] From The Septuagint and Modern Study, Sidney Jellicoe, 1968, pp. 271-272. See also the two books Studies inthe Septuagint: Origins, Recensions, and Interpretations, edited by Sidney Jellicoe and Essays in Biblical Greek: Studies on the value and use of the Septuagint, Edwin Hatch, 1970, p. 149. ” – end of quote

If still these facts were not considered by many even researchers have studied the way of writing of each fragments and also those later fragments that don’t have tetragrammaton and have tested scientifically for the dating of each fragments, then we will not push the fact to them based on archeological findings. However, we still have another way to prove that the tetragrammaton had existed in original Septuagint (LXX). This would now be the logical reasoning. First, the question that may arise is why would Jehovah allow the translators of the original Septuagint who may have lived from 280 B.C. – 50 B. C. to translate the tetragrammaton into Kyrios if his son Jesus whom he will send really know from the beginning the pronunciation of His name? Second, if tetragrammaton was really translated as Kyrios then it would mean that Jesus himself had been a liar to his words in the New Testament in which he said he manifested the name of God (which we are going to show later on this part). Third, what would be the reason of Jehovah who allowed the translators of the original Old Testament to hide his name and be replaced it by” Kyrios” in Septuagint? If this really happened, then Jesus would definitely question these writings because he himself proclaimed the name of God. Fourth, would no one from his apostles ask who is God and what is his name if Jesus would manifest the name of his Father as God or Lord only? Of course they will ask. Jesus introduced himself as the Son of God so definitely apostles would cross to their mind of what the name of God is. In fact there are gods with names mentioned on the time of the first Christians which are familiar to them. Would Jesus reveal his Father as God or Lord only and yet there are others gods that they know on that time? Why would he keep the name of his Father from the early Christians? Some say it is because he himself is the God equivalent to Jehovah and his name Jesus is his new name revealed to the people. Well, this cannot be. Psalm 110:1 clearly states and Jesus himself quoted it from the Septuagint that He himself was described as beside of the Father. So could be Jehovah be Jesus? And Kyrios and Theos are not names. Well, if these are names then why does gods translated also as theos and lords as kyrios in 1 Corinthians 8:5 in Greek Christian Scriptures? So how would Jesus and his apostles and early Christians be differentiated the name of God from those theon and kyrios if there has no name of God mentioned? Even gods and lords before have names. There was no god or lord that has no name. So these are something to think and use for logical reasoning to prove that the tetragrammaton have existed in the original Septuagint.

The fact that 5000 manuscripts of NT that have found with no tetragrammaton on it would only show that there was an alteration made. The fact is, according also to some Talmud that have found, there are rabbis who killed people with scrolls having tetragrammaton and who did not refrain from pronouncing the divine name. The underlying fact is that they gathered most of the scrolls with tetragrammaton and burned them all and have made new copies of scrolls of the Old Testament with Kurios/Kyrios. And consequently have scrupulously translated new manuscripts of the New Testament with Kyrios as a substitute for tetragrammaton and then buried their revised scrolls. Out of the thousands fragments where 5000 copies are from NT, why there are only few fragments of the Old Testament discovered written in Greek with tetragrammaton? The fact it is very few indicates that there was an event happened in favor of the false scribers. And the fact that there are 5000 manuscripts of NT with no tetragrammaton indicate that later Christians after apostles of Jesus have eliminated the tetragrammaton from the original manuscripts. And since NT can be said also as a new covenant to Jews and Gentiles, the later Christians were very much focus in attention to the Christian Greek Scriptures and since they believe on the heresy that the Divine Name of God should not pronounce because of the 3rd Law in the Ten Commandments so they have replaced the tetragrammaton with Kyrios. On the other hand, these rabbis and translators who are after apostles of Christ did not taken considerably the verses from the Old Testament of how important the name of God and how Jesus himself proclaim the name of God to his apostles and to the writers of the Christian Greek Scriptures as it was written in the Christian Greek Scriptures. Later we will see the Biblical proofs that Jesus and writers of Christian Greek Scriptures have used the Divine Name of God.

As far as I have learned, the last book in the Old Testament is Malachi and have said to be finished written until more than 400 B.C. And more than 400 years of gap when the New Testament had finished and by this time the Hebrew language had already wane, thus I believe from 280 B.C as said by the scholars was the time when the original Septuagint was written, the pronouncing of tetragrammaton might have ceased in the tongue of the Jews but not on the time of Jesus and the early Christians. Although the writers of the original Septuagint have retained the tetragrammaton maybe in Paleo-Hebrew and Aramaic characters as what the earliest fragments shows, it would not indicate that they can really pronounce the tetragrammaton in their own language. Maybe they have just written its equivalent characters to its preceding language because its original characters for the tetgrammaton was not in ancient Hebrew anymore but in Paleo-Hebrew and Aramaic. With regards of Apocrypha (the non-canonical writings in Greek language), my opinion as what other claims also is that it was written after the time of the writers of the Greek Christian Scriptures and not from 2nd century B.C. It was only revised by scribers who do not want to use the Divine Name. It shows Apocrypha was a revised writing from its original writing. And the fact it is not included in the Old Testament of the Hebrew Bible before particularly from the Masorete, thus it only shows that it is not inspired by Jehovah. As far as I have quickly scanned the Apocrypha which is a non-canonical book in the Catholic Bible, I have notice that there is no divine intervention of Jehovah with the people and the writers of it because there was no direct communication of God with them. Well, if there was really a divine communication between Jehovah and these people then it should be reported at least on those writings.  And of course eventually, Jehovah himself would reveal his name in its proper pronunciation to these people.

If there are no original Hebrew Old Testament before that used by Origen and was only a translation from the Septuagint with no tetragrammaton then how come the translators of Septuagint used by Aquila and Symmachus which used by Origen can retain the tetragrammaton in its right places of each verse in the original Hebrew Old Testament which others say only a translation from the original Septuagint? He would be having a problem in putting back all of the Divine Name or the tetragrammaton in all the verses in the Old Testament if he is uncertain of its original place. He would definitely be reading the Proverbs 30:6 in relation also to Deuteronomy 4:2 of against adding words of Jehovah. And if he put the Divine Name in all places he want in his own way, then he would be altering definitely the Old Testament. And if someone alters the word of Jehovah he is definitely adding words to original word of Jehovah which he did not say. And if tetragrammaton was not used in the original Septuagint, then why there were fragments with tetragrammaton written in Paleo-Hebrew, Square Hebrew and Aramaic? And if these were only fragments after Septuagint that has no divine name then why there were differences in rendering the tetragrammaton between Aquila’s, Symmachus’ and LXX’s version of tetragrammaton as PIPI [Roman letters for the Greek tetragram that have used] and in the most accurate manuscripts wherein Origen said the divine name was written in ancient Hebrew characters and not in their present Hebrew characters? If there was really no tetragrammaton appeared on some manuscripts or volumes then it must show at least uniform rendering of the tetragrammaton in all the fragments and manuscripts that have found. But that was not the case, there were tetragrammatons in ancient Hebrew as said by Jerome and Origen and in Greek characters in Aquila’s version, LXX, and Symmachus written as PIPI as translated in Roman Characters and in some earliest fragments (at least 10 fragments) where the tetragrammaton appeared to be in Paleo-Hebrew, Square Hebrew and Aramaic. So definitely, there is a custom of changing these characters [tetragrammaton] from a certain time to another time. If there was really an absence of the tetragrammaton in original Septuagint or the tetragrammaton appeared only in the revised Septuagint or other version of the Septuagint then there must show a uniform way in writing these characters of tetragrammaton.  The fact that there were not uniformly written in many manuscripts indicate that tetragrammaton appeared in different ways in the manuscripts from a certain period of time to another period of time. One thing that people cannot be denied. Many scholars believed that the tetragrammaton appeared in the original Hebrew Bible and this was asserted also by different religions. This would now be the end of my logical reasoning. We will now go to the Biblical proofs that Divine Name was spoken by Jesus and his apostles and the writers of the Christian Greek Scriptures. In fact from the text of Malachi 1:11, Jehovah himself told that his name would be great among nations from east to west part of the world.  Logically, these words were fulfilled beginning from the time of Jesus as man for no one can regain the proper pronunciation of the name of God after Malachi except through Jesus who from the beginning knows already the name of God and from the time of early Christians in whom the word of God reaches the other parts of the world through that time not to exclude it has great fulfillment in today’s era.

The following are the verses from the Greek Christian Scriptures (New Testament) where it shows that Jesus proclaimed the Divine Name of God to his apostles and early Christians.

The following scriptures show that Jesus must have used The Divine Name were taken from another blog:

1.      Matthew 6:9 (ASV) “After this manner therefore pray ye. Our Father who art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name.”

2.      John 5:43 (ASV) “I am come in my Father’s name, and ye receive me not: if another shall come in his own name, him ye will receive.”

3.      John 10:25 (ASV) “Jesus answered them, I told you, and ye believe not:  the works that I do in my Father’s name, these bear witness of me.”

4.      John 12:28 (ASV) “Father, glorify thy name.  There came therefore a voice out of heaven, [saying], I have both glorified it, and will glorify it again.”

5.      John 17:3 (ASV) “And this is life eternal, that they should know thee the only true God, and him whom thou didst send, [even] Jesus Christ.”

6.      John 17:6 (ASV) “I manifested thy name unto the men whom thou gavest me out of the world:  thine they were, and thou gavest them to me; and they have kept thy word.”

7.      John 17:11, 12 (ASV) ” … And I am no more in the world, and these are in the world, and I come to thee.  Holy Father, keep them in thy name which thou hast given me, that they may be one, even as we [are]. 12 While I was with them, I kept them in thy name which thou hast given me: and I guarded them, and not one of them perished, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled.”

8.      John 17:26 (ASV) ” … and I made known unto them thy name, and will make it known; that the lovewherewith thou lovedst me may be in them, and I in them.”

9.      Acts 15:14 (ASV) “Symeon hath rehearsed how first God visited the Gentiles, to take out of them a people for his name.”

10.  Acts 15:17 (ASV) “… That the residue of men may seek after the Lord, And all the Gentiles, upon whom my name is called, …”

11.  Hebrews 2:12 (ASV) ” … saying,I will declare thy name unto my brethren, In the midst of the congregation will I sing thy praise.”

12.  3 John 7 (ASV) ” … because that for the sake of the Name they went forth, taking nothing of the Gentiles.”

13.  Revelation 3:12 (ASV) “He that overcometh, I will make him a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go out thence no more: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God, and mine own new name.”

14.  Revelation 14:1 (ASV) “And I saw, and behold, the Lamb standing on the mount Zion, and with him a hundred and forty and four thousand, having his name, and the name of his Father, written on their foreheads.”

15.  Revelation 15:4 (ASV) “Who shall not fear, O Lord, and glorify thy name? for thou only art holy; for all the nations shall come and worship before thee; for thy righteous acts have been made manifest.”

16.  Revelation 22:4 (ASV) ” … and they shall see his face; and his name [shall be] on their foreheads.”

These references from Holy Scripture, clearly document the sacred importance and emphasis associated with the use of The Divine Name by Jesus (and the apostles).

  • Jesus’ (Hebrew, Yeshua) own name means “Salvation [or help] of Jah [Jehovah]” or “Jehovah is Salvation;”
  • Jesus stated:  “I have come in the name of my Father” (John 5:43);
  • Jesus taught his followers to pray:  “Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified” (Matthew 6:9);
  • Jesus said his works were done “in the name of my Father” (John 10:25); and,
  • Jesus made his Father’s name known to his disciples and said he would continue to make it known (John 17:6, 11, 12, 26).

Here are the verses in the Bible that you can ponder to realize why the name of God is really important:

  • Jesus taught his followers to pray to God: “Let your name be sanctified.” (Matthew 6:9) And in prayer on the night before his execution, he said to his Father: “I have made your name manifest to the men you gave me out of the world . . . Holy Father, watch over them on account of your own name which you have given me.”—John 17:6, 11.
  • “Everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will get away safe.”—Joel 2:32; Acts 2:21.
  • Only conscientious reading and studying of the Bible can provide you with insight into the kind of God that Jehovah is. He promises to protect those who show affection for him and his name. Regarding one who does so, God says: “Because on me he has set his affection, I shall also provide him with escape. I shall protect him because he has come to know my name. He will call upon me, and I shall answer him. I shall be with him in distress. I shall rescue him and glorify him. With length of days I shall satisfy him, and I shall cause him to see salvation by me.”—(Underline for emphasis) Psalm 91:14-16.
  • Thus, the disciple James remarked during a conference of the elders at Jerusalem: “Symeon has related thoroughly how God for the first time turned his attention to the nations to take out of them a people for his name. And with this the words of the Prophets agree.” (Acts 15:14, 15-  underline for emphasis)
  • “At that time those in fear of Jehovah spoke with one another, each one with his companion, and Jehovah kept paying attention and listening. And a book of remembrance began to be written up before him for those in fear of Jehovah and for those thinking upon his name.—Malachi 3:16. (underline for emphasis)
  • Jesus Christ teaching his disciples to pray: “You must pray, then, this way: ‘Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified.'”—Matthew 6:9, 10
  • “I am Jehovah. That is my name; and to no one else shall I give my own glory.”—Isaiah 42:8

The Bible says that God knows each one of the many billions of stars by name. (Isaiah 40:26). Would not be proper for himself too to have a name that can be called by his people?

Here are the quotes of Jesus in Greek Christian Scriptures which he quoted from the Old Hebrew Scriptures:

OT Reference JESUS’ quote in NT
Deuteronomy 8:3; 6:16; 6:13 Matthew 4:4, 7, 10
Deuteronomy 6:5 Matthew 22:37
Psalm 110:1 Matthew 22:44
Isaiah 61:1, 2 Luke 4:16-21

No doubt Jesus’ disciples, including the inspired writers of the Christian Greek Scriptures, would follow his example, using The Divine Name in their writings.

In fact early in the book of Exodus, God himself proclaim his name to Moses – Exodus 3:15. He assured to Moses that his name would be for indefinite time. And in Malachi 1:11 God made sure that his name would be great among all nations. The fact that this happened during the time of Jesus as man is because Jesus would not be perfectly ministering the TRUTH (words of Jehovah) if he did not proclaim the name of God. Why Jesus would not make known the name of God to the Christians if that is the basic way of introducing to them of who God really is?

Now, I am ending this essay and I believe these are valid reasons that needs to be accepted by all – that the presence of tetragrammaton in original Septuagint and in New Testament is undeniable based from archeological, logical and Biblical reasonings

Please read the following links about tetragrammaton:


COLOSSIANS 1:15 – 17

NWT:  15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation; 16 because by means of him all [other] things were created in the heavens and upon the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, no matter whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All [other] things have been created through him and for him. 17 Also, he is before all [other] things and by means of him all [other] things were made to exist,

NIV: 15He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. 16For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him. 17He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

KJV:  15Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature: 16For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: 17And he is before all things, and by him all things consist

NASB:  15He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation. 16For by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things have been created through Him and for Him. 17He is before all things, and in Him all things hold together.


Most of the critics of NWT regarding these verses are Trinitarians for the very reason of promoting their Trinity doctrine. By criticizing the inserted word “other” as not originally part of the Greek scriptures, they derogate the NWT and consider it as a tampered and not credible translation of the Bible. For some religions that do not teach the doctrine of Trinity, they may accept the NWT when trying to expose the explicit teachings about the distinction of Jehovah and Jesus. However, because it is not in the original texts in Greek Scriptures, some religionists who do not believe in Trinitarians still discredit the NWT version. With the united thought of the Christendom against the JW and the NWT, some people who are wanting and starting to know the truth and even some of those who are in truth were powerfully driven their minds to deceptions.  The links below allows the reader to perceive explicitly the truth concerning the verse above. I suggest you read the entire links for clarity of the subject and to erase the misconception of the many people about NWT.–272818/

With regards to the insertion of the word “other” in NWT, verse 15 shows the relation of how important to insert the word “other”. The word “firstborn” (prototokos in Greek) as explained in Watchtower’s publication and from the links above provides us a better understanding of its meaning. They explained that in the Bible when “firstborn” is being discussed this means generally that the firstborn belongs to a group or class. Even there are verses in the Bible as some critics points out that firstborn is also first in position or rank or simply preeminent over the others, still the firstborn belongs to a group or class. Thus, Jesus as firstborn can be taken as first in rank or preeminent from all creation and as the first creation from all creation of God. All the word “firstborn” in the Bible belongs to a group or class that is a group of family, animals and even a place. As examples of this is from Exodus 4:22 which says, “Then say to Pharaoh, ‘This is what the LORD says: Israel is my firstborn son,”; Exodus 12:12 which says, “On that same night I will pass through Egypt and strike down every firstborn—both men and animals—and I will bring judgment on all the gods of Egypt. I am the LORD.” We know that Israel is the chosen nation of God as this is the first land he has taken to be his own and later he also included the Gentile nations to be his own nation. He affirmed it in Oseas 2:23 and Romans 9:25 and we can clearly see it now in the true congregation of God which is all over the world, the Jehovah’s Witnesses from all nations. Exodus 12:12 clearly identify not only on a particular family but rather by taking all men and animals in Egypt as two groups or classes. The link below provides a broader explanation about the relation of the word “firstborn” to the word “begotten”.

Here are the links that explains about the word “firstborn” in Colossians 1:15:

Concerning Job 18:13 which used BeQor in Hebrew but not Prototokos in Greek. Wes Williams explained implicitly that the writer did not use “prototokos” since death cannot bear illness but rather illness can bear death. It is an abstract noun which does not require literal bearing of death.

So what does “firstborn of death” means here?

Figuratively, it means sickness is the number one cause of death, preeminent from all other death-causing cases. Literally, it means that sickness is the first one that causes death (literally speaking). Of course we know that Adam and Eve died because of their sin but what causes them to die is because of their health –their body’s failure to sustain their life. Thus, sickness as the first born of death is acting as the over-all causing death and the first cause of death of Adam and Eve. “Firstborn” here does not mean first created but rather first reason of death. Sickness is the major reason of death followed by other reasons such as by accidents, suicides, killings and natural calamities. Thus, sickness as the firstborn of death requires that there are still reasons of death that follows.

Jesus as firstborn of all creation (Colossians 1:15) cannot mean he came from all creation or he was fathered by all creation like the basic meaning of the firstborn of Jacob is Rueben as Ruben was fathered by Jacob or Rueben is the son of Jacob. So we cannot take the “firstborn” literally on the way it should mean that Jesus was fathered by all creation.

But figuratively we can take that he is preeminent over all creation and the first one brought into existence from among all creation. Can we take only the first definition and not take the second definition? No. A related example can be seen in Colossians 1:18 and Revelation 1:5.

Jesus was described as the “firstborn from the dead” (Colossians 1:18; Revelation 1:5) though it does not used the word “of all” which is also not in Greek because it would give meaning as Jesus had existed from being dead before.

Literally, Jesus was the firstborn from the dead. Thus, he is the first one resurrected from all the dead that has given eternal life. Figuratively, he is preeminent over all the resurrected people for heaven (for heaven only because firstborn requires same quality i.e. being spirit – see Romans 8:29). Consequently, Jesus as firstborn among the dead literally requires that he became part of the group and that he was dead once. He was the first dead person resurrected for eternal life in heaven and he belongs to a certain group i.e. from among other dead who will have eternal life. Literally, Jesus was the first “created” spiritually that has resurrected from grave against all other dead. Figuratively, he is the first one given a predominant power over the other resurrected people (the144,000) who will become kings on heaven. Thus it requires literally that he belongs to the dead people before.  So, firstborn of all creation means Jesus belongs to the class of creation and that he is the first one created from among other creation. I agree with Wes Williams, the word “firstborn” literally requires that the firstborn belongs to a certain group or class and that it requires others to come after him in the following time.


the words “firstborn of all angels” would mean he is the eldest among the angels and that he is preeminent with all the angels.

This is the only way it calls for the definition of the words. We cannot neglect one and accept only one. There is no reason to do it unless the user of it is being biased in his position.

Here is a very good example that shows “firstborn” as preeminent and that it belongs to a class or group.

Psalms 89:27

27 Also, I myself shall place him as firstborn,
The most high of the kings of the earth.

Thus David is a king preeminent to all other kings on earth and that he is also a king who belongs to a class or group of kings. 🙂


NWT Compared to Other Bible Versions

The New World Translations of the Holy Scriptures – Its Veracity and Benefits to Readers

A lot of bible versions were made nowadays to be able to read by the people in different languages. Many bible translations existed from old times which some people prefer to use because of the acceptance of the majority and clergy people such as the King James Version, one of the oldest translations in our time. Today, there are lot of Bible translations of the Hebrew and Greek Scriptures. Every church religion has preference in using a bible version. They believe that their preferred bible version/s is/are better to use than the other translations. The Jehovah’s Witnesses also assert this statement and they believe that the New World Translation is the most accurate and the easiest version to understand by the readers according to their own language. However, despite of the usefulness and advantages of the NWT to its readers, many critics from different religious sects do not trust this translation. Instead, they deliberately criticize some parts of its translations. So the purpose of this article is to show the truthfulness of the NWT in the most credible way I could present. Here are some major biblical verses that detractors want to call attention to destroy the credibility of the NWT and also to lead and influence many people against NWT and the Jehovah’s Witnesses. Please take this as an opportunity for everyone who wants to know the truth and uphold for the truth by reading this article most especially the links taken by the author to support the standing of the Watchtower in promoting NWT as the most accurate bible translation of this time.


NWT:  1 In [the] beginning God created the heavens and the earth. 2 Now the earth proved to be formless and waste and there was darkness upon the surface of [the] watery deep; and God’s active force was moving to and fro over the surface of the waters.

TNIV: 1 In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. 2 Now the earth was formless and empty, darkness was over the surface of the deep, and the Spirit of God was hovering over the waters.

NIV:     1 In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. 2 Now the earth was formless and empty, darkness was over the surface of the deep, and the Spirit of God was hovering over the waters.

KJV:      1In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth. 2And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters.


Some Trinitarians insist this as the Holy Spirit which is coequal and coeternal with the Father and Son. The original Hebrew words here are “ruwach elohim” which are accurately translated as “Spirit of God”. However, when reading this verse, one cannot easily and plainly understand what the word “Spirit” means on the situation or what the word is exactly trying to depict to the reader. This is the problem that encounters by the Trinitarians for they believe that Spirit of God (also Holy Spirit) is a person coequal with the Father and Son. Spirit of God as defined by Strong’s Hebrew Lexicon states, “Spirit of God, the third person of the triune God, the Holy Spirit, coequal, coeternal with the Father and Son”. On the other hand, if this Spirit is not taken as the Holy Spirit then this would show multiple good spirits of God or a different Spirit from the Holy Spirit. This would violate Ephesians 4:5 which states that there is only one spirit from God. Moreover, a person without a bible knowledge would definitely think it as a soul of God that is in him since most people know that spirit and soul are the same and interchangeable. On the part of religionists who believe that spirit and soul are not the same, many from them still believe that the Spirit of God is something that is inside of him. Let us find out what the Spirit of God is. Spirit is described as an active force of God in Psalms 104:30. Here he sends out his spirit to create things. Just imagine the universe. How can someone create and maintain all the heavenly things with enormous forces acting on each if the creator won’t use a magnificent and very powerful force? Thus spirit of God is definitely a force that he sends out to perform his will. Spirit is also described as the force of breath given to all mankind and animals – Ecclesiastes 3:19 – 21. Jesus entrusted his spirit to his Father Jehovah – Luke 23:46. Spirit of human is not immortal. It goes back to God who gives it when they die – Ecclesiastes 12:7; Psalms 146:4. From all of these, we can clearly see that the Spirit (ruwach which literally means wind) is really an active force which sends out by Jehovah to create all things, give life to all human and animals and do His own will (just as what he did to all his chosen ones from the beginning unto this last days by pouring his spirit unto them). Thus, there is no reason to say that NWT translators altered the word of God but this is mainly to define the true meaning of the word Spirit on that context.

For further reading about the identity of the Holy Spirit please click this link site:

The above link explains the nature of Spirit however, it describes that the Spirit is a power. Though Spirit is used by Jehovah it does not mean it is a power but rather a force use by God in exerting his power thus, Spirit is associated with power of God. In Science, force it said to be a power but in the Bible it is not actually a power but a force (Spirit of God) which is something that is used by God to perform his will in relation to his power. To illustrate this, we can say that the power of God can be seen from his creation. He creates  everything from nothing. He has set everything from nothing. Thus creation means – a thing made out of nothing. While force is something that holds everything (all creation) and causes everything to exist or to happen. A power can create elements out of nothing but what these elements have statutes or decree on itself is cause by the force of God according to his will generally by his own design. That is why heavens were made out of nothing by the power of Jehovah but what holds it in its constant and proper position is caused by the force of God – the Holy Spirit.


NWT:   10 “And I will pour out upon the house of David and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem the spirit of favor and entreaties, and they will certainly look to the One whom they pierced through, and they will certainly wail over Him as in the wailing over an only [son]; and there will be a bitter lamentation over him as when there is bitter lamentation over the firstborn [son].

TNIV:   10 “And I will pour out on the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem a spirit of grace and supplication. They will look on me, the one they have pierced, and they will mourn for him as one mourns for an only child, and grieve bitterly for him as one grieves for a firstborn son.

NIV:     10 “And I will pour out on the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem a spirit of grace and supplication. They will look on me, the one they have pierced, and they will mourn for him as one mourns for an only child, and grieve bitterly for him as one grieves for a firstborn son.

KJV:      10And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn.

NASB:  10“I will pour out on the house of David and on the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the Spirit of grace and of supplication, so that they will look on Me whom they have pierced; and they will mourn for Him, as one mourns for an only son, and they will weep bitterly over Him like the bitter weeping over a firstborn.


Actually the Hebrew word that is translated on some bible versions for the word “on me” is “et” which is an “untranslatable mark of the accusative case” thus there is no transliteration of the said word for the said verse. Accusative in dictionary means a grammatical case use to identify the direct object or other grammatical parts that affects the noun, pronoun and adjective. Thus it helps out the reader or hearer to identify the thing or person spoken about. Since Jehovah is the one who was speaking on the said verse, the only possible word to apply is “on me” and “to the one” since the person being mention is someone who was pierced through. And since Trinitarians believed that Jesus is Jehovah then they translated it “on me” and since Jehovah’s Witnesses believe that Jesus is not Jehovah and that Jesus was the one pierced then they translated it as “to the one”. The question is if the words “on me” is really the appropriate translation for that verse then why do the Trinitarian translators did not use the word “for me” instead of “for him” on the next phrases? This is a raising issue to Trinitarians. Since there is no Hebrew word that corresponds to the word “him” and so the translators had to decide what corresponding pronoun (he, she, him, her) should be used based on the gender which the context present. Since the pronoun “him” is normally translated without Hebrew word for it, this is normal to write it as “him” and so they wrote it as “for him” and “over him”.  Moreover, it is true that Jehovah was the one who is speaking on that verse at that time – Zechariah 12:1, 10. But why would a speaker who first spoke on the first person (i.e. on me) would spoke on the second person (him)? Would it sounds not bad grammatically to use a personal pronoun in the first person (me) then switch suddenly to a personal pronoun in a second person (him) in one sentence? Still, even the second personal pronoun was in the second sentence (considering the first pronoun was the first sentence) this would only show a big confusion to the reader and hearer in relation to what the speaker have spoken about his preceding statement that is as to whom the word “him” refers to. By careful examining the context of the whole statement concerning the pronouns used, we could clearly understand the incapacity to connect the person described as “him” to the person described as “me”. The flow of grammar as to what it should appear to the reader or hearer which is exactly primarily and the only meaning of the said statement is that – there is another person being pointed out by the speaker that is not in relation to the person he is describing on the first. So definitely the pronoun “him” proves grammatically nonsense and incorrect with regards to the subject being discussed by the speaker itself. In order to prove the concordance of the context of each phrase we must show the singularity of the pronoun use. Thus, asserting the first pronoun to be “me” then it must also be “me” on the next phrases. This will lead to a precise grammar with good sense or understanding. Grammatically, the statement should appear like this: “ 10 “And I will pour out on the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem a spirit of grace and supplication. They will look on me, the one they have pierced, and they will mourn for me (or over me) as one mourns for an only child, and grieve bitterly for me (or over me) as one grieves for a firstborn son.” Let us revise the original statement in NIV. Supposed we are going to remove the phrase “the one they have pierced” as this is possible because it is an identity clause of the subject (on me) spoken about by the speaker and try to connect the next phrase after the first phrase, this would lead as to this statement, “They will look on me and they will mourn for him as one mourns for an only child, and grieve bitterly for him as one grieves for a firstborn son”. Bingo! It proves faulty! The identity clause “the one they have pierced” is very important in identifying the person spoken about by the speaker. By having the identity clause to be part of that scripture that identifies the words “on me” which I believe was incorrect as (NWT stands for) really proves that it was Jesus Christ and not Jehovah who was pierced through as man. However, if one will consider Trinitarian translations as real and original then how come the whole context does not give a single thought or a clear thought to be precise? The undeniable reason why Trinitarian translators use the word “him” though it calls them to write it as “me” is because if they will make it similar on the pronoun “me” it will look inconsistent with their translation since the untranslated Greek word “et” is absent within the next two phrases which is present on the first phrase. The translations of the Septuagint Interlinear about this verse show the words “on me” which is therefore used by Trinitarians to insist their Trinity doctrine or Sabellianism. If the Septuagint shows the words “to the one” unfortunately it is not then the translators for sure will show the next pronoun as “him” to the next two phrases. On the other hand, if the translators of the Septuagint wrote the word as “on me” then he must also write the next two pronouns as “me” in the next two phrases for this the only way the correct grammar calls considering Jehovah is the one who was pierced through as he is Jesus as man. There are only two possible ways to look on this matter about the Septuagint Interlinear of this verse. It is either the verse is altered to refer that Jehovah is also Jesus or simply Jehovah is the one that they will look for yet Jesus is a separate individual who was pierced when he was a man. The biblical proofs that the words “on me” that Trinitarians want to refer to Jehovah as equivalent to Jesus is not applicable since no human can ever see God and lived. No one has seen Jehovah ever since and no man (with flesh) will ever see Jehovah – Exodus 33:20; 1 Timothy 6:16; John 1:18; John 6:46.

Please see this link for further discussion about Zechariah 12:10.