Posted by: fromthesunrising on: December 1, 2009
I Confess, I have Profaned The Divine Name of God! L
Exodus 20:7 “You must not take up the name of Jehovah your God in a worthless way, for Jehovah will not leave the one unpunished who takes up his name in a worthless way.
I do respect the name of God. And I know his command on not to use his name in not good ways or misuses his name. For if not, I won’t be having blog regarding his divine name. Profaning the name of God is the same as prophesying of a false prophet. And God is really against that. And I wish I could have a blog regarding the prophesying of the Watchtower before for I believe he did not prophesy from the vision send to them or from the words said to them by God but from understanding the Scriptures which is the word of God. It says in the Scriptures that whoever prophesies to a word which God have not told, then that person must die. I believe the Watchtower did not mean it if they have really read the verse in the Bible that no one knows the time of end which is the Armageddon. For they would be against God if they read it and yet did not listen to it and make their own interpretation on the time of end in which the Bible says that no one knows it even Jesus and the angels on heaven. I won’t judge them for what they have done. Only God knows their hearts and their minds. Because if someone dies but had repent of his sins faithfully and have admitted his mistakes then definitely there is no reason for God to remember his sin. For God is forgiving to all who are willing to accept their faults and repent sincerely and ask for forgiveness to God through Jesus Christ. Anyway, this short message for the sake of Watchtower is to uplift their status against the people who are against them. We must know that the law under Moses time is really strict that even who work on Sabbath just like picking branches of trees or woods will be subject to death which had happened. I am sorry I have not written the verses from the Bible. I am not good in memorizing verses. Anyways, back to my confession. Because of I really wanted to justify my words for the sake of those people, I had an oath to those people through the divine name. Which I know I must, because I have no choice, but to do it for the specific purpose and to fulfill the word of God though I don’t really want. It’s really hard for me but I know God knows my heart and I ask him for forgiveness regarding that. I pray God not to disclose this to them.
I did not put the lonely face! I am just typing this
but that sad face character appeared. I don’t have internet on my computer! It’s very unusual! Grabe! 1 or 2 more to go. I hope the last one na. And i wish before the last which is standing against him had happened already before because I refused to follow his will and ignore who i am before. Still Safe. “Demarcation” as what he showed me in the dictionary… LOL. Please wait for my next blog.
23 “And in the final part of their kingdom, as the transgressors act to a completion, there will stand up a king fierce in countenance and understanding ambiguous sayings. 24 And his power must become mighty, but not by his own power. And in a wonderful way he will cause ruin, and he will certainly prove successful and do effectively. And he will actually bring mighty ones to ruin, also the people made up of [the] holy ones. 25 And according to his insight he will also certainly cause deception to succeed in his hand. And in his heart he will put on great airs, and during a freedom from care he will bring many to ruin. And against the Prince of princes he will stand up, but it will be without hand that he will be broken.
I don’t know ha but seems it is….
pls have time to read other blogs to come and share it with others for salvation of many!!!!
Thank you to all those people who made this possible and who helped me to know all… God bless!!! We’re all confuse before Philippines! But the time has come! God has revealed all the things to us through his spirit!!!
O ya I have something that don’t like with JW i have texted it before to a network site in the Philippines. I just don’t know if they had recorded it. that was a couple of months ago. But I would like to put it here so the public may see the fulfillment of the prophecy which I do not fulfill by my own. but my confession, I fulfill it when I read it but that is because I have no choice. At first I don’t know it. Yet I have thought to do it for jsutification of my words. I’m not agry with JW. I love them because they are true but some people are misinterpreted some people who sometimes get hurt with them although that person has done wrong. Some Christian people (those who had bad habits) are not as good as those Christians who really do good deeds in every way and in every time to be holy in the eyes of God. However, some people are not like them. Being not solid in their being Christians: easy to get hurt and burst up, slow to understand. Some Christians have a habit which can offend someone but for them it’s normal thing to them. Eventually, Christians who are high in morality would not pass these things believing they are correcting someone. You know just like by ignoring or not recognizing them in a meeting in congregation. But these things are not helpful I guess. The person who misbehave and part of his habit don’t know he hurt someone. That’s why they think the person who did not recognize or ignore him is angry with him. And it can cause a weakening of his faith. That’s true my friends! People have different personalities with different IQ’s which all the congregational leaders must know! Sanctions is helpful because it is on the Scriptures but we must weigh every one. Would you like him to be lost in the congregation? What I mean if we can talk to him with heart personally and explain to him the habit he has but not pointing his wrong habit, a little bit care for his feeling of course and show him the importance of being good and having good habit then eventually he may listen too. of course he will explain on his side in abrupt manner but that’s okay we must listen though he reacted so badly still we must understand him and not reject directly whatever he say. Human behavior usually appear because of something and we must find the root of it. So we may not judge everyone in the same standards. People have different levels. From education to status of life to experience. let us be humane in everything we will make. I guess not talking with him especially a someone who has position or leader in the congregation should not be sanctions of not greeting him by the other elders. That’s too hurtful on his part and being seen by the other people. That’s is so inhumane! I am so disagree with that!!! People are starting to murmur about this people making assumptions of what sin he had made which maybe not true. Thus everyone making sin. Please have another way of implementing sanctions. Prohibit from his usual task is okay for 2 weeks or a month but please greet him… A greet is really important. If you will not make it you may have problems with those people who might turn away from the congregation. Of course each sanctions must depend on their levels… know them before giving sanctions… I just hope Watchtower will not be offended on what I say about their sanctions. If u think the person is doing something bad yet he is not saying it and you have proven it’s true. Well you have the right not to greet him! And so he will start to think of what he is doing. And I guess a little announcement concerning someone who is misbehaving might bring him to stop from doing his past things. After all u must keep on eye to him if you prove this person has change then maybe you can start to greet him too. If he did not confess his sin to the elders for forgiveness of his sins through them, well it is not us who will judge him. That’s all…. I am not angry with the JW but with some only…Hope you understand my point….
Posted by: fromthesunrising on: November 28, 2009
Jesus as Michael the Archangel
(A Grammar Outlook)
The Jehovah’s Witnesses believe that Jesus is Michael the archangel. They based their belief in the written verse of 1 Thessalonians 4:16 of the New World Translation which says, “because the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel’s voice and with God’s trumpet, and those who are dead in union with Christ will rise first.”
And Michael is known as the archangel in Judas 9. ”But when Michael the archangel had a difference with the Devil and was disputing about Moses’ body, he did not dare to bring a judgment against him in abusive terms, but said: “May Jehovah rebuke you.”
Thus, the Jehovah’s Witnesses believe that Jesus is the archangel. Archangel means an angel who is first in rank.
But other Bible translated the second phrase “with a voice of the archangel’ showing that there is a different archangel in the scene.
16For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first.” – NASB
16For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first: – KJV
16For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. – NIV
16 For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. – TNIV
The words “with a commanding call” means as Jesus descends from heaven there is a command he is voicing out. The phrase “with the commanding call” means that as he descends, there is a command of another being. The latter is not proper to use because the next phrase after “commanding call” has a preposition “with” and a word “voice” thus, it is not proper to conclude that the words “voice” and “archangel” is a continuation or is part of the phrase “commanding call” if we mean the commanding call is from the other being, but it is a continuation of the phrase “commanding call” if we mean that the commanding call is from Jesus which is really the meaning.
The next phrase will be like an adjective phrase for the first phrase. Now, is the next phrase that contains “with”, “voice”, and “archangel” (there are no articles “a”, “an”, and “the” in the original Greek text of this verse) means there is an archangel’s voice who is present in the scenario as Jesus descends? The preposition “with” as I would like to point here denotes same time, possessions of things, showing attributes or showing feelings, ideas or conditions. Let us illustrate some examples.
As an example of time:
He went outside with his girlfriend and with his classmate. (The example shows people are with him or together with him as they went out. Also it denotes same time of the actions done by the people. The girl went out together with her boyfriend’s classmates)
As an example of possession of things:
A man with car – denotes a man owns a car. A man with the car – denotes a man is beside or near the car (not an example of possession of things)
A boy with a car – denotes a boy is holding a toy car.
As an example of showing attributes:
1) She is a lady with a beautiful voice. 2) Michael speaks with a voice of a king. The first one shows that a lady has a beautiful voice while the second one shows Michael has a voice of a king.
As an example of showing feelings, ideas or conditions:
1) She speaks with love and wisdom. 2) She died with pain but with noble.
So now, which is the correct in the next phrase? Is it “with a voice of the archangel” or “with a voice of an archangel.”?
The usage of articles here now makes sense. And I believe the NWT translators have really maintained the exact meaning of every verse in the original texts of the Bible.
If the verse really states in this way “Jesus will descend from heaven with a commanding call, WITH A VOICE OF THE ARCHANGEL, …” then it would mean there is a voice present as Jesus descends from heaven. This would be invalid because it shows disrespect on part of Jesus. If this is the phrase we are going to use then, it would mean literally that as Jesus is descending and commanding, another angel is also shouting. He cannot repeat the commanding call of Jesus. Only Jesus is given the right to resurrect the people.- 1 Corinthians 15:21 “For since death is through a man, resurrection of the dead is also through a man.” Acts 15:28,29 28 “Do not marvel at this, because the hour is coming in which all those in the memorial tombs will hear his voice 29 and come out, those who did good things to a resurrection of life, those who practiced vile things to a resurrection of judgment.” Why am I insisting that the angel cannot repeat the command of Jesus? Think of this. Is it a proper act of an angel to cause his voice as a call or power to resurrect the people? On the other hand, if the archangel would make a call before Jesus commands then the original Greek text must really show the meaning it that way. The one possible translation verse position that would show that there are three objects treated differently is this : “Jesus will descend from heaven with God’s trumpet, with a commanding call and with a voice of the archangel,…” This really shows three different instruments or objects. I believe the Greek writers know at least the rules in attaining the exact meaning of a verse. The possible version could mean there would be a sound of call (possibly continuing), then a call of an archangel and lastly, Jesus will descend with a commanding call. However, the Greek text doesn’t show this. Therefore, the translation of NWT is an exact translation of the original Greek verse of 1 Thessalonians 4:16.
Changing the position of the three phrases will make difference in meaning. I believe that is the same with Hebrew and Greek language.
Let us analyze the claim of some that there is an archangel present and separated from Jesus.
The claims of others about 1 Thessalonians 4:16 believe that the Bible must be written in this way:
“Jesus descends with a commanding call, with a voice/shout of the archangel (with the archangel’s voice) and with God’s trumpet, …”
The sentence above shows as Jesus descends with a commanding call there was an archangel with a voice/shout (a calling) and then a sound call.
We know from the next verse that the command of Jesus will cause the dead to be resurrected. So definitely, the archangel’s voice would not mean that after Jesus has his commanding call the archangel would call also. This is invalid. So we will assume that the archangel is calling Jesus to descend from heaven. But this is not possible because if Jesus will really call by an archangel then the voice of the archangel must be written first on the sentence and it must show in another this way: “Jesus descends with a voice of the archangel, with a commanding call and with God’s trumpet, …” There is no possible way of interpreting that there is really an archangel calling Jesus to descend unless it is written in the latter way above.
How do we say that the commanding call is from Jesus based on the proper sentence that must appear to indicate that there is really an archangel? If the commanding call is not from Jesus, it would be redundant as the archangel is shouting already and if he is the one who has a commanding call then he would make himself as the one who causes the dead to resurrect.
If the claimers would insist that there is really an archangel calling or a shout for Jesus to descend, then the preposition “with” would fall into a something which involved the same time just as I have mentioned examples above. The word “with” in “with the voice of the archangel” would definitely indicate that time is involved thus it means as Jesus descends there is an archangel’s shout of voice. And this would not possible to happen before Jesus descends because the word “with” indicate an event is happening accompanied with the first event that is happening also. This is an example of preposition “with” under the same time. As a dare to those who said it is an archangel’s calling then can you cite a sentence using the preposition “with” in the second phrase that happen first and a different subject that indicates a different action from the first action? As I would like to point out the commanding call of Jesus would not be repeated by the archangel because Jesus himself is the one that will cause the dead to resurrect and not by an archangel.
So the prepostion “with” indicates something which does not involve same time but rather a showing of attributes. As I have written an example above. – Michael speaks with a voice of a king. And it means that Michael’s voice is just like a king.
Even in using the same context of that sentence (the opposed sentence) just like in the next sentence is not valid.
“The President went out with a commanding order, with a shout/voice of the god and with musical background.”
It is plain to understand that as the president went out with a commanding order there is a shout of call of a god with musical background. This happens all at the same time and not a shout of a god followed by the president’s commanding order.
Perhaps next time I would post my blog concerning the identity of Jesus as Michael the Archangel. Till next time. Keep searching for the TRUTH. For the truth shall prevail.
Posted by: fromthesunrising on: November 25, 2009
Jehovah’s Witnesses – The True Witness of God
(A Closer Look in Proving Their Identity as True and Reliable Christians)
The dictionary defines the word witness (v) as to see or hear an occurrence of something. Another meaning is to view or perceive. The first meaning refers to the first witnesses who have an actual experience of seeing or hearing an event. In the Bible, these witnesses are the chosen people of God none other than the Israel. While the second meaning of witness refers to the first Christians who have an actual witness of the word of Jehovah through Jesus and the Christian witnesses of today who are testifying for the words of Jehovah and for Jesus Christ. The word “perceive” means understanding of something in a particular way thus means knowing factual things through senses.
In the Bible, the word witnesses whom Jehovah claimed as his witnesses can be read in Isaiah 43:10.
Isaiah 43:10 “Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.” – KJV
Notice the word used as to refer those witnesses. Jehovah said they are “his servant” (singular) and not “servants”. Thus a single word for a person can be characterized as a group of people. These witnesses (the early Israel) have seen and heard the fulfillment of the prophecies and power of Jehovah. We know from the beginning, Israel had been a witness to the power of God most especially on the time when they were freed from Egyptians. From that time and unto their next generations, Israelites have seen that no one from the words of Jehovah have failed to come. So Jehovah called his nation (Israel) as the witness of his words – meaning someone who can testify the truthfulness of Jehovah. Take note when Jehovah said the verse Isaiah 43:10 he is not only referring to the current Israel of that time but on the first Israelites whom he freed from Egyptians through his power. They are the original witnesses of Jehovah while the witnesses of that time when he said his words are witnesses of the past Israel and of the present Israel. They are witnesses of the first Israel because they can testify that first Israel have an actual seen of the events before which were written on their scrolls and of course much they believe that this is true is because Jehovah himself reminds them the events that happen to the first Israel and proving his words (prophecies and judgment to them) are true by fulfilling it.
However, witnesses of Jehovah not only include the first Israel (or the literal Jews) for in Isaiah 43:5-7 it says
5Fear not: for I am with thee: I will bring thy seed from the east, and gather thee from the west;
6I will say to the north, Give up; and to the south, Keep not back: bring my sons from far, and my daughters from the ends of the earth;
7Even every one that is called by my name: for I have created him for my glory, I have formed him; yea, I have made him.
Jehovah assured his words that the first Israel would have offspring from the east and unto west part of the world. This verse definitely would mean that there are new witnesses of God to come, for the nation of Jehovah before was the Israel only. So when does these witnesses of Jehovah have come to exist? This was first fulfilled on the time of Jesus. His apostles and early Christians before became witnesses of Jehovah and himself for they have seen the truth through Jesus. But in Acts 1:8 it says
8”But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth.” – KJV
8 but you will receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you; and you shall be My witnesses both in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and even to the remotest part of the earth.“
Jesus did not say that they “are his witnesses” but rather they “will become my witnesses to” (as is in other versions) [emphazise pls] Jerusalem, Judea, Samaria and to the most distant parts of the world. However, when Jesus told this to his apostles he did not mean it in present tense but on future tense. The best proof of his words can be seen in the book of Luke in 24:44-48 which says
44And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.
45Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures,
46And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behooved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day:
47And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.
48And ye (are?) witnesses of these things. – KJV
44Now He said to them, “These are My words which I spoke to you while I was still with you, that all things which are written about Me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled.”
45Then He opened their minds to understand the Scriptures,
46and He said to them, “Thus it is written, that the Christ would suffer and rise again from the dead the third day,
47and that repentance for forgiveness of sins would be proclaimed in His name to all the nations, beginning from Jerusalem.
48“You (are?) witnesses of these things. – NASB
At the time when Jesus said “you (?) my witnesses of these things” (the things here are his resurrection after 3 days, the preaching of the gospel to all nations of the apostles and Christians and the salvation through Jesus’ name), at that time apostles were only preaching to Jerusalem and Paul and his colleagues were the one who preached the gospel to gentile nations). So definitely the word sense to be in the future tense for they haven’t witness yet the gospel of Jesus proclaiming to Gentiles at that time. Jesus is telling them what would happen next, his resurrection after 3 days and the preaching of the gospel in all nations and forgiving of sins through his name. That is not happening yet but on the coming days. 48? So it must appropriately render it as “will become my witnesses”. And when Jesus talked to his apostles and said this he was not limiting his words to the apostles as his witnesses but on the future days to come. And Acts 1:8 talked about the Holy Spirit (Helper as Spirit, see John 15:26 that will testify to the truth) that will come to the 12 apostles, yet in Acts 2:1 – 11 proved that the Holy Spirit also came to a group of Christians before and they have miraculously speaks of different languages and they become “witnesses” (for they testified to the word of God) to other people in their new own language.
John 15:26″When the Helper comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, that is the Spirit of truth who proceeds from the Father, He will testify about Me, – NASB
26But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me: – KJV
So Luke 24:48 and Acts 1:8 which Jesus mention as his witnesses doesn’t limit to the first apostles because the Holy Spirit = Helper which will testify to the TRUTH also came to other Christians that is because Jesus words are started to be fulfilled that is to preach the gospel in all nations and his apostles are witnesses of these things which he foretold before he died. And a question may arise, if the 12 apostles (including Matthias) were only the true witnesses, do you think they can testify to all nations about the word of Jehovah. And the fact that these early apostles have not known many languages so how come they will fulfill and that they will become Jesus witnesses to all nations? Imagine 12 people speaking all languages of all nations? That’s too thoughtless for a person to claim in that way. And the fact that early Christians in Acts 2:1 – 11 and Paul and his colleagues were the ones who preached or testified the word of Jehovah to many nations would prove that they are “the witnesses to many nations” through the Holy Spirit sent by Jehovah and was mentioned by Jesus in John 15:26 and Acts 1:8.
So to take the summary of it, how must we viewed the word “witnesses” in the Bible. Notice the words of Peter quoted by Paul in Acts 3:15 in which Peter said “he was a witness” – a one who had seen about the power of Jehovah through Jesus Christ, the son of God. However, when Jesus was resurrected and appeared and talked with them in 40 days, he told them that they will become his witnesses to many nations and not as “my witnesses to many nations such as in other versions.
Acts 1:8 but YOU will receive power when the holy spirit arrives upon YOU, and YOU will be witnesses of me both in Jerusalem and in all Ju·de´a and Sa·mar´i·a and to the most distant part of the earth.” – NWT
So how I am sure that this refers to witnesses of the next generations? If the phrase of Jesus was like this “You are my witnesses to many nations” such as in Luke 24:48 of many Bible versions then definitely that is in present tense. Meaning they are already witnesses of truth to many nations as of the time Jesus said it. But that grammar would not be appropriate to use “are” because as we know it was the Jerusalem of the Israel or the Israel who had first heard of the gospel of Jesus. And Jesus proved this true in Luke 24:44 – 47 and in Acts 1:8 which he said preaching the gospel will start in Jerusalem. This is also in relation to the promise and aim of Jehovah to get a new nation for his own that will come from other nations. – Hoseas 2:23; Acts 15:17-19
Hosea 2:23And I will sow her unto me in the earth; and I will have mercy upon her that had not obtained mercy; and I will say to them which were not my people, Thou art my people; and they shall say, Thou art my God. – KJV
17SO THAT THE REST OF MANKIND MAY SEEK THE LORD,
AND ALL THE GENTILES WHO ARE CALLED BY MY NAME,‘
18SAYS THE LORD, WHO MAKES THESE THINGS KNOWN FROM LONG AGO.
19“Therefore it is my judgment that we do not trouble those who are turning to God from among the Gentiles, – NASB
Thus, these witnesses were not only witnesses of the power of Jehovah shown through Jesus Christ and Jesus’ name but a more relative and deep meaning of witnesses(present tense) that is bearing witness/testifying to all nations of the world about Jehovah and Jesus Christ.
With this essay through the Spirit of Jehovah, I am sure that Jehovah’s Witnesses are true witnesses of Jehovah in union with Jesus Christ.
In Isaiah 62:2 it says
“And the nations will certainly see your righteousness, [O woman,] and all kings your glory. And you will actually be called by a new name, which the very mouth of Jehovah will designate. – NWT
It was said that Jehovah himself will call his nation Israel in a new name. And this was fulfilled in the time of Jesus through Christians. However, Jesus himself did not call this Christians as Christians but only on the time of and through Barnabas the word “Christians” were started to used as their identity and it was said that this made possible through the guidance of Jehovah in which could link to Isaiah 62:2. Acts 11:26 says
26 and, after he found him, he brought him to Antioch. It thus came about that for a whole year they gathered together with them in the congregation and taught quite a crowd, and it was first in Antioch that the disciples were by divine providence called Christians. – NWT
The word divine providence means through the authority or in way of a divine one. So this would mean that it is Jehovah himself and not Jesus called them as Christians. So why Jehovah’s Witnesses is correct? In Isaiah 43:10 they are witnesses of Jehovah on the past and on that current time yet verse 5 – 7 of Isaiah 43 just as to repeat again that these witnesses will have offspring from the east and west part of the world which is the Gentiles of the early Christians. So I guess Christians before and of today are the same witnesses of Jehovah. And I may suggest that first Israel before called as the witnesses of Jehovah = Jehovah’s Witnesses of today.
For further proofs about Jehovah’s Witnesses as the True Christians of today please see my other blogs on what they believe based on Holy Scriptures or visit their site at
www.watchtower.org
Posted by: fromthesunrising on: November 22, 2009
The Divine Name of God: Spoken by Jesus and Early True Christians
(An Archeological, Logical and Biblical Proofs)
Many religious scholars are still looking for evidence that the Divine Name or the Tetragrammaton has been known to early true Christians. They believe that Jesus himself have revealed the name of his Father to his apostles and disciples. Even this fact can be seen clearly in the New Testament or Christian Greek Scriptures which are being presented by the Jehovah’s Witnesses and others religious scholars and leaders, yet a lot of people do not recognize the word of God. As we go through here, you will realize the facts that the Divine Name of God was used by early Christians.
The main reason why other religious leaders and their followers do not recognize the account of this is because the Septuagint (LXX) or the Greek Translation of Hebrew Scriptures have not encountered any written word or symbol for Tetragrammaton but instead a word “Kyrios” which means “Lord”. And some early Bible Versions including Latin Vulgate translated by Jerome in 4th century C.E. have not retained the Name of God. And his version was said to be based from the Septuagint which is available and has used on the 2nd century C.E. However, some Bible versions by some people like Aquila (1st century C.E.) and Symachus (2nd century C.E.) has retained the Tetragrammaton. This was shown by Origen in his hexapla – a six-column inspired reproduction of the Hebrew Scriptures in Greek language. In a study of his Hexapla on the evidence of the fragmentary copies now known, Professor W. G. Wadell said this:
“In Origen’s Hexapla . . . the Greek versions of Aquila, Symmachus, and LXX all represented JHWH by PIPI; in the second column of the Hexapla the Tetragrammaton was written in Hebrew characters.” – The Journal of Theological Studies, Oxford, Vol. XLV, 1944, pp. 158, 159. Others believe the original text of Origen’s Hexapla used Hebrew characters for the Tetragrammaton in all its columns. Origen himself stated that “in the most accurate manuscripts THE NAME occurs in Hebrew characters, yet not in today’s Hebrew [characters], but in the most ancient ones”.
Now, based on this evidence, we can say that the Septuagint has tetragrammaton. There has no indication that there is a Septuagint which has no tetragrammaton in its entire volume. The only thing that made up a wrong conclusion by the other religious scholars and religions was that they don’t found any evidence of tetragrammaton in the 5000 excavated fragments of New Testament or Greek Christian Scriptures and the version of Latin Vulgate (complete Hebrew and Greek Scriptures translated into Latin language) by Jerome in the 4th century C.E., wherein he also not retain the tetragrammaton and said he had used the Septuagint BUT MADE A COMMENT THAT THE TETRAGRAMMATON WERE WRITTEN IN SOME GREEK VOLUMES IN THE ANCIENT HEBREW CHARACTERS. On the other hand, Aquila had translated the Hebrew Scriptures or the Old Testament into Greek in his own way. Aquila was probably lived from 130 C.E. It was said that Aquila consult the Septuagint wherein the tetragramatton was there written in Greek letters and equivalent to “PIPI” in Roman characters. In fact, Origen also examined the Septuagint(LXX) and Symmachus version wherein he also found the tetragrammaton denoted in Greek characters and could be translated the same as PIPI in Roman Chracters. Still this evidence do not recognize by many and say that from the original Septuagint (without tetragrammaton), some had revised it and put back again the Divine Name of God which may have used by Aquila and Symmachus and have examined by Origen. So in this case, some would believe that the Septuagint used by Origen was not the original Septuagint but a revised version of the original Septuagint. Later, we will find out if these were true.
As of today, the archeologists or researchers have found around 5000 copies of fragments of the New Testaments in the Dead Sea Regions. And scholars have examined these fragments and have found that the tetragrammaton cannot be found anywhere else on it. Such observation have resulted in many religious scholars and leaders to conclude that the original Septuagint used by Jesus and his disciples do not contain the Divine Name as they claim these were original writings or manuscripts of the writers of Christian Greek Scriptures. However, based on the dating of the fragments it was found out that these fragments were existed from 3rd century to 4th century C.E. Yet, still many religious scholars who don’t believe in using the name of God do not recognize this fact. So, again with this, we will not yet assume that they are wrong.
However, there were evidences found out from some fragments of original Septuagint which have excavated as it was from the Old Testament written in Greek. One of these fragments was found by researchers and gave them a dating from 50 B.C. to 50 C.E. Below are pictures of those fragments which contain tetragrammaton and had taken from Wikipedia’s site.


Notice that the Tetragrammaton is written in the ancient Hebrew (Paleo-Hebrew) script. Here is another example of an ancient fragment of the Septuagint dating to the First Century CE (AD). This fragment contains parts Job 42:
There are other early fragments that also contain the sacred name in like manner. According to scholars, no copies of the Septuagint dated before the mid-2nd century CE/AD substitutes the Tetragrammaton (Yahweh’s name) with “Kyrios” (the Greek word Lord).
And from another site, I have found an explanation of some fragments and it was called Fouad 266 papyri which has been studied by the Watch Tower itself. You can have an access to his site at www.thoughts.com/blog/photos especifically at www.thoughts.com/blog/photos/59645 and www.thoughts.com/blog/photos/56583


In the picture above (3 of) the left hand picture again is of Fouad 266, and is dated to the 1st century BCE. The Tetragrammaton can be seen (encircled with pointed arrows). The main text is in Greek, but the Divine Name has been retained in Hebrew!
Do you see that, even though the main text is in Greek, the Tetragrammaton in square Hebrew letters is used? So the copyist of this papyrus scroll also did not substitute the Greek words for “Lord” (Kyrios) or “God.” Rather, over 30 times he put—in the midst of the Greek writing—the Tetragrammaton in Hebrew letters!
Dr. Paul E. Kahle of Oxford explained that these fragments contain “perhaps the most perfect Septuagint text of Deuteronomy that has come down to us.”
In Studia Patristica, he added,
“We have here in a papyrus scroll a Greek text which represents the text of the Septuagint in a more reliable form than Codex Vaticanus and was written more than 400 years before.”
The above words were taken from a site who also quoted those words from the viewed website of the preceding figures.
The following are some of the fragments of LXX that have the tetragrammaton which are available for studies of religious scholars:
1) LXX P. Fouad Inv. 266.
2) LXX VTS 10a.
3) LXX IEJ 12.
4) LXX VTS 10b.
5) 4Q LXX Levb.
6) LXX P. Oxy. VII.1007.
7) Aq Burkitt.
Aq Taylor.
9) Sym. P. Vindob. G. 39777.
10) Ambrosiano O 39 sup.
The above fragments show that there was really tetragrammaton used in Septuagint.
Another fragment that had found and had commented by a scholar who believes tetragrammaton was really existed in original Septuagint is below.
On the transcription of the Divine Name [in the LXX] B.J. Roberts wrote in 1951: “The problem still remains unsolved and is under discussion.” If any change has taken place over the past decade it is in a movement still further away from the position of Baudissin. This scholar had maintained that right from its origins the LXX had rendered the Tetragrammaton by Kyrios [Kyrios], and that in no case was this latter a mere substitute for an earlier jAdwnaiv [Adonai]. Thus he denied the evidence of Origen that in the more accurate manuscripts the Divine Name was written in ancient (palaeo-Hebrew) script and the later testimony of Jerome to the same effect. As Waddell pointed out, Baudissin’s summary statement is “flatly disproved” by the Fouad Papyrus, and now a Qumran fragment of Leviticus ii-iv, written in a hand closely akin to Fouad 266, has been found to render the Tetragrammaton by IAW. Kahle is also of the opinion, and claims the concurrence of C.H. Roberts, that in the Rylands Papyrus Greek 458, at Deuteronomy xxvi.17 where the text breaks off just before the appearance of the Divine Name, the original bore not Kyrios as Roberts originally supposed, but the unabridged Tetragrammaton. It would seem therefore that the evidence most recently to hand is tending to confirm the testimony of Origen and Jerome, and that Kahle is right in holding that LXX texts, written by Jews for Jews, retained the Divine Name in Hebrew Letters (palaeo-Hebrew or Aramaic) or in the Greek imitative form PIPI, and that its replacement by Kyrios was a Christian innovation.[22]
[22] From The Septuagint and Modern Study, Sidney Jellicoe, 1968, pp. 271-272. See also the two books Studies in the Septuagint: Origins, Recensions, and Interpretations, edited by Sidney Jellicoe and Essays in Biblical Greek: Studies on the value and use of the Septuagint, Edwin Hatch, 1970, p. 149.
If still these facts were not considered by many even researchers have studied the way of writing of each fragments and also those later fragments that don’t have tetragrammaton and have tested scientifically for the dating of each fragments, then we will not push the fact to them based on archeological findings. However, a question may arise if tetragrammaton was not really written before. And this would now be a logical reasoning for the proof that tetragrammaton have existed in original Septuagint. First, why would Jehovah allow the translators of the original Septuagint who may have lived from 280 B.C. – 50 B. C. to translate the tetragrammaton into Kyrios if his son Jesus whom he will send know from the beginning how to pronounce His name? Second, if tetragrammaton was really translated as Kyrios then it would mean that Jesus himself had been a liar to his words in the New Testament in which he said he manifested the name of God (which we are going to show later on this part). Third, what would be the reason of Jehovah who allowed the translators of the original Old Testament to hide his name and be replaced it by” Kyrios” in Septuagint? If this really happened, then Jesus would definitely question these writings because he himself proclaimed the name of God. Fourth, would no one from his apostles ask “Who is God? What is his name?” if Jesus would manifest the name of his Father as God or Lord? Of course they will ask. Jesus introduced himself as the Son of God so definitely apostles would cross to their mind of what the name of God is. In fact there are gods with names mentioned on the time of the first Christians which are familiar to them. Would Jesus reveal his Father as God or Lord only and yet there are others gods that they know on that time? Why would he keep the name of his Father from the early Christians? Some claim it, and they say it is because he himself is the God equivalent to Jehovah and his name Jesus is his new name revealed to the people. Well, this cannot be. Psalm 110:1 clearly states and Jesus himself quoted it from the Septuagint that He himself was described as beside of the Father. So could be Jehovah be Jesus? And Kyrios and Theos are not names. Well, if these are names then why does gods translated also as theos and lords as kyrios in 1 Corinthians 8:5 in Greek Christian Scriptures? So how would Jesus and his apostles and early Christians be differentiated the name of God from those theos and kyrios if there has no name of God mentioned? Even gods and lords before have names. There was no god or lord that has no name. So these are something to think and use for logical reasoning to prove that the tetragrammaton have existed in the original Septuagint.
The fact that 5000 manuscripts of NT that have found with no tetragrammaton on it would only show that there was an alteration made. The fact is, according also to the documents that have found, there are rabbis who killed people with scrolls having tetragrammaton and who did not refrain from pronouncing the divine name. The underlying fact is that they gathered most of the scrolls with tetragrammaton and burned them all and have made copies of scrolls of the Old Testament with Kurios/Kyrios. And consequently have scrupulously translated new manuscripts of the New Testament with Kyrios as a substitute for tetragrammaton and then buried their revised scrolls. Out of the thousands fragments where 5000 copies are from NT, why there are only few fragments of the Old Testament discovered written in Greek with Kyrios? The fact it is very few as well as the fragments of the Old Testament in Greek with tetragrammaton indicate that there was an event happened in favor of the false scribers. And the fact that there are 5000 manuscripts of NT with no tetragrammaton indicate that later christians after apostles have eliminated the tetragrammaton from the original manuscripts. And since NT was a new covenant to Jews and Gentiles, the later christians were very much focus in attention to the Christian Greek Scriptures and since they believe on the heresy that the Divine Name of God should not pronounce because of the 3rd Law in the Ten Commandments so they have replaced the tetragrammaton with Kyrios. On the other hand, these rabbis and translators who are after the apostles of Christ did not taken considerably the verses from the Old Testament of how important the name of God and how Jesus himself proclaim the name of God to his apostles and to the writers of the Christian Greek Scriptures as it was written in the Christian Greek Scriptures. Later we will see the Biblical proofs that Jesus and writers of Christian Greek Scriptures have used the Divine Name of God. In regards to Apocrypha (the non-canonical books which are said by the others to be part of the Old Testament) of which some fragments were found and which are said to be written from 2nd century B.C. and have found to have no tetragrammaton and uses Kyrios only, I would say it is impossible that these were written from 2nd century B.C. The earliest fragments of original Septuagint which said to have tetragrammaton don’t show any evidence of using the word Kyrios before. The proof can be seen from the figure below in which the tetragrammaton in earliest fragment of Fouad 266 of Deuteronomy 32:3 – 6 is compared with Codex Alexandrinus of the 5th century C.E. and Aleppo Codex of 10th century C.E. Notice that there was a uniform place of rendering the tetragrammaton and the word Kyrios (but Ku and Ky only in Codex Alexandrinus) . On the other hand, on the current Bible versions of Hebrew and Greek Testament there are more than twice of total renderings of the Divine Name and “God” in Deut. 32: 3 – 6.
Deuteronomy 32: 3 For I shall declare the name of Jehovah.
Do YOU attribute greatness to our God!
4 The Rock, perfect is his activity,
For all his ways are justice.
A God of faithfulness, with whom there is no injustice;
Righteous and upright is he.
5 They have acted ruinously on their own part;
They are not his children, the defect is their own.
A generation crooked and twisted!
6 Is it to Jehovah that YOU keep doing this way,
O people stupid and not wise?
Is he not your Father who has produced you,
He who made you and proceeded to give you stability? – NWT
3 I will proclaim the name of the LORD.
Oh, praise the greatness of our God!
4 He is the Rock, his works are perfect,
and all his ways are just.
A faithful God who does no wrong,
upright and just is he.
5 They have acted corruptly toward him;
to their shame they are no longer his children,
but a warped and crooked generation. [a]
6 Is this the way you repay the LORD,
O foolish and unwise people?
Is he not your Father, your Creator, [b]
who made you and formed you? – NIV
3Because I will publish the name of the LORD: ascribe ye greatness unto our God.
4He is the Rock, his work is perfect: for all his ways are judgment: a God of truth and without iniquity, just and right is he.
5They have corrupted themselves, their spot is not the spot of his children: they are a perverse and crooked generation.
6Do ye thus requite the LORD, O foolish people and unwise? is not he thy father that hath bought thee? hath he not made thee, and established thee? – KJV
3“For I proclaim the name of the LORD;
Ascribe greatness to our God!
4“The Rock! His work is perfect,
For all His ways are just;
A God of faithfulness and without injustice,
Righteous and upright is He.
5“They have acted corruptly toward Him,
They are not His children, because of their defect;
But are a perverse and crooked generation.
6“Do you thus repay the LORD,
O foolish and unwise people?
Is not He your Father who has bought you?
He has made you and established you. – NASB
That was a total of four words that link to God. So the question that may arise is, how does the other word “God” have been put on some places within that verses (Deuteronomy 32:3-6) when in that fragment (pls see the link site above) and in Codex Alexandrinus (Greek versions) only shows two words that indicates God, i.e. the tetragrammaton for fragment and Kyrios for Codex Alexandrinus. Well, if there are other words on those manuscripts that link to the word “God” then it must be discussed by some scholars. Yet even there is none single Greek word that links to a word “God”, “God” still appears in most current Bible versions. Remember the text was in Greek but no indication of a word Greek substituted to God in some places of verse 3 to 6 compared in our current Bible versions. So, I can conclude that writers before have no way of translating the word “God” in Greek from a Hebrew word for “God” (as they are using the Old Hebrew Bible in translating it into Greek version). So how come there are words “God” in some places of some current Bible versions which are not written before as Kyrios in Greek? Of course, we may have revised Septuagint without tetragrammaton available today as used by Jerome in his Vulgate version. We also have complete version of Alexandrinus Codex and Vaticanus Sinaiticus in complete version of the entire Bible in Greek. These versions I guess have no difficulty of translating the word Lord in the New Testament (Greek Christian Scriptures) for during that time “Kyrios” may have been using already. In fact, if the verses in the New Testament which has word “Lord” in Greek (assuming not Kyrios) and have said by Jesus himself and the apostles yet have changed it by that word Kyrios by the scribers, then eventually scribers are violating Revelation 22:18-19 which of course a familiar verse to them. And I believe they would not want to be out of the Book of Life. So back to our question, how do the translators of current Bible versions have the word ”God” or “Lord” in some places where it is not rendered by tetragrammaton and Kyrios particularly in Deuteronomy 32:3 – 6? Of course, just what Jerome did, I think these translators have reviewed the Old Testament written in Hebrew. The oldest Hebrew Bible was the version of Masoretes (from 2nd – 4th century C.E) done by numerous Hebrew Bible Scholars which indicates the way of pronouncing the terms in the Old Testament. So if this version of the Old Testament had not properly rendered the tetragrammaton and the Hebrew word for “God” in all its respective places in the Old Testament so we can say that we will not have accurate current Bible versions of today that uses the Divine Name of God and the word “God” in their proper respective places also in the Old Testament. So with this reason, we may say that the writer of Codex Alexandrinus might have used the original Septuagint version with tetragrammaton as the Ku and Ky appeared in the same position of the tetragrammaton in the Fuad 266 papyri (that maybe also a copy of original Septuagint). By this single evidence I have seen, I may say that the word Kyrios was not introduced yet in the original Septuagint however, in Masoretes version of Hebrew (Old) Testament there may be an indication(as I am not sure but bible versions shows it in that way) that the tetragrammaton and Hebrew word for God were written separately. So to further check this I would like others to check other verses of Old Testament in Codex Alexandrinus which may have used Ku or Ky or Kyrios and compare it with the Masoretes Bible version. In this way, we can know how the Hebrew word for “God” was translated in the Greek language. However, if Kyrios or Kurios was used in Codex Alexandrinus on some verses then why in Deuteronomy it was “Ku” and “Ky” only? As for the Fouad 266 with verse Deuteronomy 32:3 – 6, I would suggest also to look if Masoretes version has a Hebrew word for “God” separated from the two tetragrammaton in Fouad 266. If Fouad 266 papyri of Deuteronomy 32:3 – 6 does not show any Greek word for God but only two tetragrammaton yet appeared the word “God” in its Hebrew word including the two tetragrammaton in Masorete, then it would only prove that there was uncertainty of translating the word “God” in Hebrew into Greek during the time the Fouad 266 was made. Other papyri fragments in Greek text of Deuteronomy have shown the tetragrammaton in its respective places. I have seen these verses in NWT and have found out that Jehovah and God are written separately or if not the Divine Name followed by the word “God” but not consecutively. So if the Masorete did not show in this way then of course NWT would definitely not appear like that. So my questions, how does the word “God” appeared in Greek text in other verses of papyri of Deuteronomy and in other books of Old Testament? Does these fragments show only tetragrammaton and does not show any Greek word for “God?” Then, if there is no word that would link to the word “God” in these papyri then it is not only from the one papyrus mentioned above that there was really none actual Greek word for “God”. I would not assume that my conclusion is correct. However, it’s very common sense to think that if there was really a Greek word for the Hebrew word of “God” in those papyri found then why scholars and researchers have not mention it? That’s something to think of, isn’t it? I am not saying that my views regarding the absence of “theos” in the fragments that contain the tetragrammaton is true as I have no actual further readings about those fragments saying the absence of the word “Theos”. But when I looked the fragments of Deuteronomy 32:3 – 6 and this verse in Codex Alexandrinus, it seems that “Theos” was not written on these verses.
As far as I have learned, the last book in the Old Testament is Malachi and have said to be finished written until more than 400 B.C. And almost 400 years of gap when the New Testament had finished and by this time the Hebrew language have started to wane, thus I believe from 280 B.C where scholars said the original Septuagint was written, the pronouncing of tetragrammaton might have ceased in the tongue of the Jews. Although the writers of the original Septuagint have retained the tetragrammaton maybe in Paleo-Hebrew and Aramaic characters as what the earliest fragments shows, it would not indicate that they can really pronounce the tetragrammaton in their own language. Maybe they have just written its equivalent characters to their current language because their original language was not ancient Hebrew anymore but Paleo-Hebrew and Aramaic. In my deep opinion as what I have said previously, the Apocrypha which is said to be written from 2nd century C.E was not written on that time but after the time of the writers of Greek Christian Scriptures. It was only revised by scribers who do not want to use the Divine Name. And since “Kyrios” was not introduced before until Jesus came [see my reason above in early fragments and Codex Alexandrinus], then it would be impossible that the writers who used “Kyrios” rather than tetragrammaton clearly wrote it (the Apocrypha) after the time of the Apostles. It thus shows Apocrypha was a revised writing from its original writing. And the fact it is not included in the Old Testament of the Hebrew Bible before particularly the Masorete, thus only shows that it is not inspired by Jehovah. As far as I have quickly scanned the Apocypha which is a non-canonical book in the Catholic Bible, I have notice that there is no divine intervention of Jehovah with the people and the writers of it because there was no direct communication of God with them. Well, if there was really a divine communication between Jehovah and these people then it should be reported at least on those writings. And of course eventually, Jehovah himself would reveal his name in its proper pronunciation to these people.
If there are no original Hebrew Old Testament before that used by Origen and was only a translation from the Septuagint with no tetragrammaton then how come the translators of Septuagint can retain the tetragrammaton in its right places of each verse in the Hebrew Old Testament which others say only a translation from the original Septuagint? He would be having a problem in putting back all the Divine Name or the tetragrammaton in all the verses in the Old Testament if he is uncertain of its original place. He would definitely be reading the Proverbs 30:6 in relation also to Deuteronomy 4:2 of against adding words of Jehovah. And if he put the Divine Name in all places he want in his own way, then he would be altering definitely the Old Testament. And if someone alters the word of Jehovah he is definitely adding words to original word of Jehovah which he did not say. And if tetragrammaton was not used in the original Septuagint, then why there were fragments with tetragrammaton written in Paleo-Hebrew, Square Hebrew and Aramaic? And if these were only fragments after Septuagint that has no divine name then why there were differences in rendering the tetragrammaton between Aquila’s, Symmachus’ and LXX’s version of tetragrammaton as PIPI [Roman letters for the Greek tetragram that have used] and in the most accurate manuscripts wherein Origen said the divine name was written in ancient Hebrew characters and not in their present Hebrew characters? If there was really no tetragrammaton appeared on some manuscripts or volumes then it must show at least uniform rendering of the tetragrammaton in all the fragments and manuscripts that have found. But that was not the case, there were tetragrammatons in ancient Hebrew as said by Jerome and Origen and in Greek characters in Aquila’s version, LXX, and Symmachus written as PIPI as translated in Roman Characters and in some earliest fragments (at least 10 fragments) where the tetragrammaton appeared to be in Paleo-Hebrew, Square Hebrew and Aramaic. So definitely, there is a custom of changing these characters [tetragrammaton] from a certain time to another time. If there was really an absence of the tetragrammaton in original Septuagint or the tetragrammaton appeared only in the revised Septuagint or other version of the Septuagint then there must show a uniform way in writing these characters of tetragrammaton. The fact that there were not uniformly written in many manuscripts indicate that tetragrammaton appeared in different ways in the manuscripts from a certain period of time to another period of time. This would now be the end of my logical reasoning. We will now go to the Biblical proofs that Divine Name was spoken by Jesus and his apostles and the writers of the Christian Greek Scriptures. In fact from the book of Malachi. Jehovah himself told that his name would be great among nations from east to west part of the world.
Malachi 1:11 “For from the sun’s rising even to its setting my name will be great among the nations, and in every place sacrificial smoke will be made, a presentation will be made to my name, even a clean gift; because my name will be great among the nations,” Jehovah of armies has said.
Logically, these words were fulfilled from the time of Jesus as man for no one can regain the proper pronunciation of the name of God after Malachi except through Jesus who from the beginning knows already the name of God.
The following are the verses from the Greek Christian Scriptures (New Testament) where it shows that Jesus proclaimed the Divine Name of God to his apostles and early Christians.
The following scriptures show that Jesus must have used The Divine Name:
10. Acts 15:17 (ASV) “… That the residue of men may seek after the Lord, And all the Gentiles, upon whom my name is called, …”
11. Hebrews 2:12 (ASV) ” … saying,I will declare thy name unto my brethren, In the midst of the congregation will I sing thy praise.”
12. 3 John 1:7 (ASV) ” … because that for the sake of the Name they went forth, taking nothing of the Gentiles.”
13. Revelation 3:12 (ASV) “He that overcometh, I will make him a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go out thence no more: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God, and mine own new name.”
14. Revelation 14:1 (ASV) “And I saw, and behold, the Lamb standing on the mount Zion, and with him a hundred and forty and four thousand, having his name, and the name of his Father, written on their foreheads.”
15. Revelation 15:4 (ASV) “Who shall not fear, O Lord, and glorify thy name? for thou only art holy; for all the nations shall come and worship before thee; for thy righteous acts have been made manifest.”
16. Revelation 22:4 (ASV) ” … and they shall see his face; and his name [shall be] on their foreheads.”
These references from Holy Scripture, clearly document the sacred importance and emphasis associated with the use of The Divine Name by Jesus (and the apostles).
Here are the verses in the Bible that you can ponder to realize why the name of God is really important:
The Bible says that God knows each one of the many billions of stars by name. (Isaiah 40:26). Would not be proper for himself too to have a name that can be called by his people?
Here are the quotes of Jesus in Greek Christian Scriptures which he quoted from the Old Hebrew Scriptures:
| OT Reference | JESUS’ quote in NT |
| Deuteronomy 8:3; 6:16; 6:13 | Matthew 4:4, 7, 10 |
| Deuteronomy 6:5 | Matthew 22:37 |
| Psalm 110:1 | Matthew 22:44 |
| Isaiah 61:1, 2 | Luke 4:16-21 |
No doubt Jesus’ disciples, including the inspired writers of the Christian Greek Scriptures, would follow his example, using The Divine Name in their writings.
In fact early in the book of Exodus, God himself proclaim his name to Moses. (quote Exodus 3:15) He assured to Moses that his name would be for indefinite time. And in Malachi 1:11 God made sure that his name would be great among all nations. The fact that this happened during the time of Jesus as man is because Jesus would not be perfectly ministering the TRUTH (words of Jehovah) if he did not proclaim the name of God. Why Jesus would not make known the name of God to the Christians if that is the basic way of introducing to them of who God really is?
Now, I am ending this essay and I’m willing to withdraw my views regarding the absence of the word “Theos” in early fragments with tetragrammaton specifically in Deuteronomy 32: 3 – 6 and I’m willing to accept comments regarding this matter. But even my assumed statement about the absence of the word “Theos” were invalid, there is still valid reason to be accepted by all that the presence of tetragrammaton in original Septuagint and in New Testament is undeniable based from logical and Biblical reasonings.
To Jehovah God be the Glory forever and ever!!!
Posted by: fromthesunrising on: November 13, 2009
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